Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. The client reports pain at the incision site and a small amount of purulent drainage is noted. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Apply a sterile dressing to the incision.
• B. Reinforce the dressing and document the findings.
• C. Remove the dressing and assess the incision site.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider. Purulent drainage at the incision site is concerning as it may indicate an infection. The healthcare provider needs to be informed promptly to initiate appropriate treatment. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of infection. Reinforcing the dressing and documenting findings (Choice B) is important but should be preceded by notifying the healthcare provider. Removing the dressing and assessing the incision site (Choice C) may disturb the area and should be done under the guidance of the healthcare provider.

2. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• B. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute
• C. Fever of 100.4°F
• D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fever of 100.4°F is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it may indicate an underlying infection, which can lead to serious complications in this population. Elevated body temperature can be a sign of sepsis, which requires immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate threat to the client's well-being in the context of preparing for hemodialysis.

3. A client is receiving a full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50 ml/hour
• B. Continue the full-strength feeding after decreasing the rate of infusion to 25 ml/hour
• C. Maintain the present feeding until diarrhea subsides and then begin the new prescription
• D. Withhold any further feeding until clarifying the prescription with the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to dilute the formula by adding equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infusing it at 50 ml/hour. This can help alleviate the diarrhea that has developed. Diarrhea can occur as a complication of enteral tube feeding and can be due to a variety of causes, including hyperosmolar formula. Choice B is incorrect as continuing the full-strength feeding, even at a lower rate, may not address the issue of diarrhea. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to follow the new prescription to manage the diarrhea effectively. Choice D is incorrect as withholding feeding without taking appropriate action may delay necessary intervention.

4. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section (C-Section), the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Ensure preoperative lab results are available
• B. Start prescribed IV with lactated Ringer's
• C. Inform the anesthesia care provider
• D. Contact the client's obstetrician

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the anesthesia care provider. The patient's ingestion of coffee violates the NPO (nothing by mouth) guidelines before surgery, which increases the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Informing the anesthesia care provider promptly allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making regarding the patient's anesthesia plan. Ensuring preoperative lab results, starting an IV, or contacting the obstetrician can be important steps but addressing the NPO violation and its implications on anesthesia safety take precedence.

5. A male client with ulcerative colitis received a prescription for a corticosteroid last month, but because of the side effects, he stopped taking the medication 6 days ago. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Anxiety and restlessness
• B. Increased bowel movements
• C. Abdominal cramping
• D. Fever and chills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anxiety and restlessness. Abruptly stopping corticosteroids can cause adrenal insufficiency, leading to symptoms such as anxiety and restlessness. These symptoms indicate a potential serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Increased bowel movements and abdominal cramping are common side effects of ulcerative colitis and may not warrant immediate intervention. Fever and chills are not typically associated with adrenal insufficiency caused by corticosteroid withdrawal.

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