Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction who was hospitalized 24 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Hypoactive bowel sounds in the lower quadrant.
• B. Rebound tenderness in the upper quadrants.
• C. Tympany with percussion of the abdomen.
• D. Light-colored gastric aspirate via the nasogastric tube.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rebound tenderness in the upper quadrants may indicate peritonitis, which requires prompt medical attention. Hypoactive bowel sounds are expected in small bowel obstruction and would not be a priority over signs of peritonitis. Tympany with percussion is a normal finding and not a cause for immediate concern. Light-colored gastric aspirate could indicate various issues but is not as urgent as peritonitis.

2. A female client with type 2 diabetes reports that she has been taking her medications as prescribed but her blood glucose levels remain elevated. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's current blood glucose level.
• B. Assess the client's diet and medication adherence.
• C. Review the client's medication list for potential interactions.
• D. Obtain a hemoglobin A1c level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to review the client's medication list for potential interactions. This step is crucial as it can help identify any medications that might be contributing to the elevated blood glucose levels. Checking the current blood glucose level (choice A) is important but not the first action to address the ongoing issue. Assessing the client's diet and medication adherence (choice B) is also important, but reviewing the medication list should be the initial step to rule out any drug-related causes. Obtaining a hemoglobin A1c level (choice D) is a valuable assessment but may not address the immediate need to identify potential medication interactions.

3. A client with a nasogastric tube in place following gastric surgery reports nausea. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Irrigate the NG tube with 30 ml of normal saline.
• B. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
• C. Assess the NG tube for patency and reposition if necessary.
• D. Provide sips of water and reassess the client's symptoms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the NG tube for patency and repositioning it if necessary is the most appropriate action to relieve the client's nausea. Nausea in a client with a nasogastric tube can be due to the tube's malposition or blockage. Irrigating the NG tube with normal saline (Choice A) without assessing for patency or repositioning may worsen the situation. Administering an antiemetic (Choice B) can help manage symptoms but does not address the potential issue with the NG tube. Providing sips of water and reassessing symptoms (Choice D) may be contraindicated if there is a problem with the NG tube and could exacerbate the nausea.

4. While removing staples from a male client's postoperative wound site, the nurse observes that the client's eyes are closed and his face and hands are clenched. The client states, 'I just hate having staples removed.' After acknowledging the client's anxiety, what action should the nurse implement?

• A. Attempt to distract the client with general conversation
• B. Administer a pain medication
• C. Continue with the procedure while reassuring the client
• D. Stop the procedure and notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should attempt to distract the client with general conversation. Distracting the client can help reduce anxiety and make the procedure less stressful. Administering pain medication (choice B) is not appropriate as the client's discomfort is related to anxiety, not physical pain. Continuing with the procedure while reassuring the client (choice C) may not address the client's anxiety effectively. Stopping the procedure and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is not necessary at this point since the client's anxiety can be managed by attempting to distract him.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.
• B. Administer intravenous insulin and glucose.
• C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
• D. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer intravenous insulin and glucose first. This intervention helps drive potassium back into the cells, lowering serum levels effectively. Administering intravenous calcium gluconate (choice A) is used to stabilize cardiac membranes in severe hyperkalemia but does not address the underlying cause. Administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate (choice C) is used in metabolic acidosis, not hyperkalemia. Administering a loop diuretic (choice D) can help eliminate potassium but is not the first-line treatment for hyperkalemia in CKD.

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