HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet reports a weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Instruct the client to reduce fluid intake
- B. Monitor the client's intake and output
- C. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
- D. Assess the client for signs of fluid overload
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet and reports a significant weight gain is to assess the client for signs of fluid overload. This step is crucial in determining the severity of the situation and guiding further treatment. In this scenario, assessing for signs of fluid overload takes priority over other actions such as instructing the client to reduce fluid intake, monitoring intake and output, or administering a diuretic. While these actions may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, the initial priority is to evaluate the client's immediate condition.
2. A client who developed syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) associated with small carcinoma of the lung is preparing for discharge. When teaching the client about self-management with demeclocycline (Declomycin), the nurse should instruct the client to report which condition to the healthcare provider?
- A. Insomnia
- B. Muscle cramping
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle cramping. SIADH causes dilutional hyponatremia due to increased ADH release. Demeclocycline is used to block the action of ADH. Muscle cramping can indicate electrolyte imbalances related to hyponatremia, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. Insomnia, increased appetite, and anxiety are not typically associated with the side effects or complications of demeclocycline or SIADH.
3. Following an open reduction of the tibia, the nurse notes bleeding on the client's cast. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to see if the area has increased
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- C. Apply a new cast to stop the bleeding
- D. Elevate the limb to reduce blood flow
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After an open reduction of the tibia, bleeding on the cast can be a concern. Outlining the area with ink and monitoring it every 15 minutes is the appropriate action to assess if the bleeding is worsening, indicating the need for further intervention. This action allows for close observation without disturbing the cast. Choice B is incorrect because while notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate action is not always necessary if the bleeding is not severe. Choice C is incorrect because applying a new cast is not the standard intervention for bleeding on a cast. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the limb may not address the underlying cause of bleeding and may not be the most appropriate action at this time.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is most concerning?
- A. Jugular venous distention
- B. Crackles in the lungs
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is most concerning in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) is a sign of increased central venous pressure but is not as concerning as pulmonary congestion. Crackles in the lungs (Choice B) are common in heart failure due to fluid accumulation but are not as immediately concerning as severe shortness of breath. Peripheral edema (Choice D) is a manifestation of fluid retention in the body but is less indicative of acute pulmonary distress compared to shortness of breath.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles is most concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen as it indicates increased work of breathing, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is acceptable in a client with COPD. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not as critical as the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles may be present in clients with COPD due to underlying lung changes but do not require immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.
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