Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet reports a weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Instruct the client to reduce fluid intake
• B. Monitor the client's intake and output
• C. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
• D. Assess the client for signs of fluid overload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet and reports a significant weight gain is to assess the client for signs of fluid overload. This step is crucial in determining the severity of the situation and guiding further treatment. In this scenario, assessing for signs of fluid overload takes priority over other actions such as instructing the client to reduce fluid intake, monitoring intake and output, or administering a diuretic. While these actions may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, the initial priority is to evaluate the client's immediate condition.

2. When preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for a client admitted to the surgical unit with symptoms of a possible intestinal obstruction, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees
• B. Administer an antiemetic
• C. Prepare the client for surgery
• D. Provide oral care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees is essential when inserting an NG tube. This position helps facilitate the passage of the tube through the esophagus into the stomach and reduces the risk of aspiration. Administering an antiemetic may be necessary to control nausea or vomiting, but it is not the primary intervention when inserting an NG tube. Preparing the client for surgery is not indicated solely for the insertion of an NG tube. Providing oral care is important for maintaining oral hygiene but is not directly related to inserting an NG tube.

3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A prothrombin time of 18 seconds is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy as it indicates impaired liver function and an increased risk of bleeding. This requires immediate intervention to prevent bleeding complications. Choice A, serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl, is elevated but not as urgent as the abnormal prothrombin time. Choice B, bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl, is elevated but does not directly indicate an urgent need for intervention in this situation. Choice C, serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.

4. A client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation via a triple-lumen suprapubic catheter that was placed during a prostatectomy. Which report by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Leakage around the catheter insertion site.
• B. Pink-tinged urine in the drainage bag.
• C. Client reports discomfort at the catheter site.
• D. Decreased urine output in the last hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Leakage around the catheter insertion site may indicate a problem with the catheter placement or function, requiring immediate intervention. Pink-tinged urine in the drainage bag is expected due to the continuous bladder irrigation. Discomfort at the catheter site is common after the procedure. Decreased urine output in the last hour may be due to the continuous bladder irrigation and doesn't require immediate intervention.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While monitoring electrolyte levels like serum potassium and sodium is important in overall client care, they are not specific to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is a component of INR and helps in monitoring warfarin therapy, but INR gives a standardized result that is independent of the laboratory method used, making it the preferred choice for monitoring warfarin therapy.

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