HESI RN TEST BANK

RN HESI Exit Exam

A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

    A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.

    B. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.

    C. Administer intravenous morphine as prescribed.

    D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress. Loop diuretics (Choice B) may be indicated to manage fluid overload in heart failure but are not the immediate priority in this case. Administering morphine (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for shortness of breath in heart failure and should be considered after addressing oxygenation and underlying causes. Obtaining an arterial blood gas sample (Choice D) can provide valuable information but is not the initial action needed to address the client's acute respiratory distress.

The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

  • A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
  • B. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
  • C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
  • D. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with COPD as it indicates metabolic acidosis, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, patients often retain carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory acidosis. A low serum bicarbonate level suggests that the body is compensating for this respiratory acidosis by increasing bicarbonate levels to maintain balance. Therefore, a low serum bicarbonate level in this scenario is alarming. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and not directly related to the acid-base imbalance seen in COPD.

The nurse is administering an IV medication to a client with a history of anaphylaxis. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

  • A. Stay with the client throughout the infusion.
  • B. Keep emergency resuscitation equipment at the bedside.
  • C. Obtain the client's allergy history.
  • D. Ask the client about past allergic reactions to medications.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Keeping emergency resuscitation equipment at the bedside is crucial in case the client experiences anaphylaxis during the infusion. While staying with the client throughout the infusion (Choice A) is important, having immediate access to emergency equipment takes priority in this situation. Obtaining the client's allergy history (Choice C) and asking about past allergic reactions to medications (Choice D) are relevant but do not address the immediate need for emergency intervention in case of anaphylaxis.

A client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet reports a weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

  • A. Instruct the client to reduce fluid intake
  • B. Monitor the client's intake and output
  • C. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
  • D. Assess the client for signs of fluid overload

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet and reports a significant weight gain is to assess the client for signs of fluid overload. This step is crucial in determining the severity of the situation and guiding further treatment. In this scenario, assessing for signs of fluid overload takes priority over other actions such as instructing the client to reduce fluid intake, monitoring intake and output, or administering a diuretic. While these actions may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, the initial priority is to evaluate the client's immediate condition.

In caring for a client with a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate through the right cephalic vein, the nurse assesses that the client is lethargic with a blood pressure of 90/60, pulse rate of 118 beats per minute, and respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. What assessment should the nurse perform next?

  • A. Note the appearance and patency of the client's peripheral IV site.
  • B. Palpate the volume of the client's right radial pulse.
  • C. Auscultate the client's breath sounds bilaterally.
  • D. Observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe.

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is dealing with a lethargic client with concerning vital signs after a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate. The next assessment the nurse should perform is to observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe. This is crucial to evaluate for possible overdose, as the client's symptoms could be indicative of opioid toxicity. Checking the morphine amount and dose will help the nurse adjust the treatment accordingly. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the potential cause of the client's lethargy and abnormal vital signs related to the morphine infusion.

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