Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• C. Administer intravenous morphine as prescribed.
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress. Loop diuretics (Choice B) may be indicated to manage fluid overload in heart failure but are not the immediate priority in this case. Administering morphine (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for shortness of breath in heart failure and should be considered after addressing oxygenation and underlying causes. Obtaining an arterial blood gas sample (Choice D) can provide valuable information but is not the initial action needed to address the client's acute respiratory distress.

2. A client with liver cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dL
• B. Bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dL
• C. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL is elevated and concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis, as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to cognitive impairment, altered mental status, and even coma. Serum albumin, bilirubin, and prothrombin time are also important markers in liver cirrhosis but are not as directly associated with the risk of hepatic encephalopathy as elevated ammonia levels.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 640 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
• C. Check the client's blood glucose level
• D. Prepare the client for immediate dialysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering IV fluids as prescribed is the priority intervention in a client with a blood glucose level of 640 mg/dl and unresponsiveness. Severe hyperglycemia can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, and administering IV fluids can help manage hyperglycemia and prevent further complications. Administering dextrose IV push (Choice A) can exacerbate hyperglycemia in this scenario. Checking the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is important but not the immediate priority when the client is unresponsive. Immediate dialysis (Choice D) is not indicated as the first intervention for hyperglycemia.

4. A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician's office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman?

• A. Describe the transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk
• B. Encourage her to use stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing exercises
• C. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding
• D. Explain that anxiety is a normal response for the mother of a 3-week-old.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: There are several antianxiety medications that are not contraindicated for breastfeeding mothers, so it is important to inform her of this option.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. The client reports pain at the incision site and a small amount of purulent drainage is noted. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Apply a sterile dressing to the incision.
• B. Reinforce the dressing and document the findings.
• C. Remove the dressing and assess the incision site.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider. Purulent drainage at the incision site is concerning as it may indicate an infection. The healthcare provider needs to be informed promptly to initiate appropriate treatment. Applying a sterile dressing (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of infection. Reinforcing the dressing and documenting findings (Choice B) is important but should be preceded by notifying the healthcare provider. Removing the dressing and assessing the incision site (Choice C) may disturb the area and should be done under the guidance of the healthcare provider.

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