HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Serum sodium level
- D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dl
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, INR is a more precise indicator of therapeutic levels. Serum sodium level and hemoglobin level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.
2. A client with severe COPD is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client's oxygen saturation level drops to 88% during ambulation. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
- B. Instruct the client to rest until the oxygen saturation improves.
- C. Discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed.
- D. Encourage the client to breathe more deeply.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's oxygen saturation level dropping during ambulation indicates an inadequate oxygen supply. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed. This helps stabilize the oxygen level by reducing the oxygen demand placed on the client during physical activity. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing the underlying issue of oxygen saturation dropping may not be effective. Instructing the client to rest is not enough to address the immediate need for stabilization of oxygen levels. Encouraging the client to breathe more deeply may not be sufficient to overcome the oxygen saturation drop caused by inadequate oxygen supply during ambulation.
3. Following an open reduction of the tibia, the nurse notes bleeding on the client's cast. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to see if the area has increased
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- C. Apply a new cast to stop the bleeding
- D. Elevate the limb to reduce blood flow
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After an open reduction of the tibia, bleeding on the cast can be a concern. Outlining the area with ink and monitoring it every 15 minutes is the appropriate action to assess if the bleeding is worsening, indicating the need for further intervention. This action allows for close observation without disturbing the cast. Choice B is incorrect because while notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate action is not always necessary if the bleeding is not severe. Choice C is incorrect because applying a new cast is not the standard intervention for bleeding on a cast. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the limb may not address the underlying cause of bleeding and may not be the most appropriate action at this time.
4. A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician's office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman?
- A. Describe the transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk
- B. Encourage her to use stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing exercises
- C. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding
- D. Explain that anxiety is a normal response for the mother of a 3-week-old.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: There are several antianxiety medications that are not contraindicated for breastfeeding mothers, so it is important to inform her of this option.
5. During a home visit, the nurse observed an elderly client with diabetes slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Give the client 4 ounces of orange juice
- B. Call 911 to summon emergency assistance
- C. Check the client for lacerations or fractures
- D. Assess client's blood sugar level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take after an elderly client with diabetes slips and falls is to check the client for lacerations or fractures. This is crucial to assess for any immediate physical injuries that may need immediate attention. Giving orange juice or assessing the blood sugar level may be important later but checking for injuries takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Calling 911 should be considered if there are severe injuries or if the client is in distress, but checking for lacerations or fractures is the priority at the moment.
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