Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased respiratory rate.
• B. Absence of breath sounds.
• C. Expiratory wheezes.
• D. Productive cough with green sputum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absence of breath sounds. This finding can indicate a pneumothorax or severe asthma exacerbation, both of which require immediate intervention to ensure adequate ventilation and prevent further complications. Increased respiratory rate (choice A) is common in asthma exacerbations but may not always necessitate immediate intervention. Expiratory wheezes (choice C) are typical in asthma and may not always indicate a critical condition. A productive cough with green sputum (choice D) suggests a possible respiratory infection but does not warrant immediate intervention as much as the absence of breath sounds.

2. A home health nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for several clients with heart failure. Which client finding would the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. Total cholesterol 190
• B. Glycosylated hemoglobin of 7%
• C. B-type natriuretic peptide 550 pg/ml (more than 100 is concerning)
• D. Potassium 3.7

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated B-type natriuretic peptide level indicates worsening heart failure, requiring immediate attention. This biomarker reflects the severity of heart failure and helps guide treatment decisions. Total cholesterol and glycosylated hemoglobin are important for assessing cardiovascular risk and diabetes management but are not indicative of acute heart failure exacerbation. A potassium level of 3.7 falls within the normal range and does not suggest an immediate concern in the context of heart failure.

3. The client with the sexually transmitted disease HPV reports having had prior sexually transmitted infections. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Emphasize that using safe sex practices removes the risk of transmission.
• B. Instruct the client of the importance of notifying sexual partners.
• C. Reassure that complications will not occur if infection is treated.
• D. Provide counseling that most contraceptives prevent against infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client about the importance of notifying sexual partners is crucial when dealing with sexually transmitted infections like HPV. This helps prevent the spread of the infection to others and promotes responsible sexual behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while using safe sex practices is important, notifying sexual partners is more immediate and directly related to preventing the spread of the infection. Reassuring about complications and discussing contraceptives do not address the immediate need to notify partners.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum osmolality of 320 mOsm/kg.
• B. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL.
• C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• D. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum glucose level of 600 mg/dL is extremely high in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) and poses a significant risk of serious complications such as dehydration, coma, and electrolyte imbalances. Rapid intervention is crucial to normalize the glucose level and prevent further deterioration. Serum osmolality of 320 mOsm/kg, serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L, while important to monitor in HHS, do not represent an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention compared to the critically high glucose level.

5. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

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