Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the provider to explain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best for the provider to provide?

• A. To increase gastric motility.
• B. To decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery.
• C. To reduce secretions.
• D. To prevent nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic medication, is used preoperatively to prevent bradycardia by increasing the automaticity of the sinoatrial node during surgical anesthesia. Choice A is incorrect because atropine does not affect gastric motility. Choice C is incorrect as atropine is not primarily used to reduce secretions. Choice D is also incorrect because preventing nausea and vomiting is not the primary purpose of administering atropine in this context.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has returned from surgery. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 92%.
• C. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
• D. Pain at the surgical site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 99°F (37.2°C) in a postoperative client requires immediate intervention as it may indicate the presence of infection. Elevated temperature post-surgery can be a sign of surgical site infection or systemic infection, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Monitoring and managing a fever in a postoperative client is crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings, such as a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, oxygen saturation of 92%, and pain at the surgical site, are common postoperative assessments that may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless they are significantly out of normal range or causing severe distress to the client.

3. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

• A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
• B. On the left side with legs elevated.
• C. On the right side with legs elevated.
• D. Prone with head elevated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

4. Several employees who have a 10-year or longer smoking history ask for assistance with smoking cessation. A nurse develops a 2-month program that includes weekly group sessions on lifestyle changes and use of over-the-counter nicotine substitute products. Which measurement provides the best indication of the program's effectiveness?

• A. survey employees to determine how many are smoking 2 months after the end of the program
• B. test the employees' knowledge of OTC nicotine substitute products at the end of the program
• C. ask employees to inform the group if they stop smoking and if they start smoking again
• D. design a questionnaire that identifies lifestyle changes contributing to smoking cessation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Surveying employees to determine how many are smoking 2 months after the end of the program provides a direct assessment of the program's effectiveness. This measurement evaluates the actual behavior change related to smoking cessation. Choice B, testing knowledge of OTC nicotine substitute products, does not directly measure smoking cessation outcomes. Choice C relies on self-reporting, which may not be accurate or reliable. Choice D focuses on identifying lifestyle changes but does not directly assess the program's impact on smoking cessation.

5. The healthcare professional is developing a program to educate parents on childhood nutrition. Which topic should be prioritized?

• A. the benefits of organic foods
• B. how to read nutrition labels
• C. the importance of a balanced diet
• D. ways to incorporate more vegetables into meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prioritizing the topic of the importance of a balanced diet is crucial as it provides a fundamental understanding for parents to establish healthy eating habits for their children. Understanding the importance of a balanced diet helps parents make informed decisions about food choices, portion sizes, and meal planning. Option A, focusing on the benefits of organic foods, while valuable, may not be feasible or affordable for all families. Option B, teaching parents how to read nutrition labels, is important but secondary to understanding the overall concept of a balanced diet. Option D, discussing ways to incorporate more vegetables into meals, is beneficial but should come after establishing the foundation of a balanced diet.

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