Nursing Elites

1. After an adult had an indwelling catheter removed, the nurse catheterizes them as ordered and obtains 200 cc of urine. What is the best interpretation of this finding?

• A. Is voiding normally.
• B. Has urinary retention.
• C. Has developed renal failure.
• D. Needs an indwelling catheter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The finding of obtaining 200 cc of urine after catheterization indicates urinary retention, as the bladder did not empty completely after the first void. This situation may require further assessment and intervention to address the issue of incomplete bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because voiding normally would indicate a larger amount of urine output. Choice C is incorrect as renal failure would typically present with other signs and symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as the presence of urinary retention does not necessarily mean the need for an indwelling catheter immediately.

2. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure that the client signs the consent form.
• B. Review the client's allergies with the surgical team.
• C. Confirm the client's identity using two identifiers.
• D. Verify that the surgical site is marked.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ensuring that the client signs the consent form (A) is the most crucial action before surgery. The consent form is legally and ethically necessary for the procedure to proceed. While reviewing allergies (B), confirming identity (C), and verifying the surgical site (D) are essential steps, obtaining the client's informed consent takes precedence to protect the client's rights and ensure a safe surgical experience.

3. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

4. Which assessment data indicates the need for the nurse to include the problem 'Risk for falls' in a client’s plan of care?

• A. Recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL
• B. Opioid analgesic received one hour ago
• C. Stooped posture with an unsteady gait
• D. Expressed feelings of depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The administration of opioid analgesics can impair balance and increase the risk of falls, justifying the inclusion of 'Risk for falls' in the client’s care plan. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk of falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate a risk for falls, but the direct influence of opioid analgesics on balance is more immediate. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, while important, is not a direct indicator of the immediate risk for falls associated with opioid analgesic use.

5. When assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair, what is the best action for the nurse to implement?

• A. Use a mechanical lift to transfer the client from the bed to a chair.
• B. Place a roller board under the client who is sitting on the side of the bed and slide the client to the chair.
• C. Lift the client out of bed to the chair with another staff member using a coordinated effort on the count of three.
• D. Place a transfer belt around the client, assist the client to stand, and pivot to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best action for the nurse when assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair is to use a transfer belt. Placing a transfer belt around the client, assisting the client to stand, and pivoting to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed allows for a safe and controlled transfer. This method promotes patient independence while ensuring safety during the transfer process. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because using a mechanical lift may not be necessary for a client who can stand, using a roller board may not provide enough stability, and lifting the client with the help of another staff member may not be the safest option for the client's independence and safety.

Similar Questions