Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. The client’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level is 80 seconds. The client’s baseline before the initiation of therapy was 30 seconds. Which action does the nurse anticipate is needed?

• A. Shutting off the heparin infusion
• B. Increasing the rate of the heparin infusion
• C. Decreasing the rate of the heparin infusion
• D. Leaving the rate of the heparin infusion as is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse needs to decrease the rate of the heparin infusion. The therapeutic dose of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis is designed to keep the aPTT between 1.5 and 2.5 times normal. With the client's aPTT level elevated to 80 seconds from a baseline of 30 seconds, it indicates that the current rate of heparin infusion is too high. Lowering the rate of infusion is necessary to bring the aPTT within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because shutting off the infusion, increasing the rate, or leaving it as is would not address the elevated aPTT level and may lead to complications.

2. What should the nurse do before an echocardiogram for a client who has had a myocardial infarction?

• A. Ensuring no food or drink for 4 hours before the procedure
• B. Obtaining informed consent from the client
• C. Assessing for any history of iodine or shellfish allergies
• D. Informing the client about the painless nature and duration of the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client that the echocardiogram is a painless procedure that usually takes 30 to 60 minutes to complete. Echocardiography is a noninvasive, risk-free, and pain-free test that uses ultrasound to evaluate the heart's structure and motion. There is no need for special preparation before the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because imposing nothing-by-mouth status, obtaining informed consent, and assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish are not necessary steps before an echocardiogram.

3. A male client expresses concern about how a hypophysectomy will affect his sexual function. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information about the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy?

• A. Removing the source of excess hormone should restore the client's libido, erectile function, and fertility.
• B. Potency will be restored, but the client will remain infertile.
• C. Fertility will be restored, but impotence and decreased libido will persist.
• D. Exogenous hormones will be needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the most accurate statement regarding the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy on sexual function. The client's sexual problems are directly related to excessive hormone levels. Removing the source of excess hormone secretion through hypophysectomy should allow the client to return to a normal physiologic pattern, which includes restoring libido, erectile function, and fertility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B incorrectly states that the client will remain infertile, which is not necessarily true after a hypophysectomy. Choice C inaccurately suggests that fertility will be restored while impotence and decreased libido will persist, which is not aligned with the expected outcomes of hypophysectomy. Choice D is incorrect because exogenous hormones are typically not needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed; rather, the removal of the source of excessive hormone secretion should address the sexual function concerns.

4. Blood is drawn from a client with suspected uric acid calculi for a serum uric acid determination. Which value does the nurse recognize as a normal uric acid level?

• A. 1.7 mg/dL
• B. 5.8 mg/dL
• C. 8.9 mg/dL
• D. 12.8 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal range for uric acid is 4.5 to 8 mg/dL for males and 2.5 to 6.2 mg/dL for females. A uric acid level of 5.8 mg/dL falls within the normal range. Choices A, C, and D are outside the normal reference range, making them incorrect. Choice B is the correct answer as it aligns with the typical uric acid levels in the blood.

5. A nurse is conducting an assessment of a client who underwent thoracentesis of the right side of the chest 3 hours ago. Which findings does the nurse report to the physician? Select all that apply.

• A. Unequal chest expansion
• B. Pulse rate of 82 beats/min
• C. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min
• D. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After thoracentesis, the nurse should assess the client for signs of pneumothorax, which include increased respiratory rate, dyspnea, retractions, unequal chest expansion, diminished breath sounds, and cyanosis. Unequal chest expansion is a key sign of pneumothorax due to the accumulation of air in the pleural space, causing the affected lung to collapse partially. Pulse rate and respiratory rate within normal ranges, like in choices B and C, are not the priority findings to report in this situation. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung could be expected after thoracentesis and may not necessarily indicate a complication like pneumothorax, making choice D less urgent to report.

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