HESI RN
Maternity HESI Quizlet
1. A client in active labor is admitted with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most significant in planning this client's care?
- A. Patellar reflex 4+
- B. Blood pressure 158/80
- C. Four-hour urine output 240 ml
- D. Respirations 12/minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Patellar reflex 4+'. Hyperreflexia is a sign of severe preeclampsia and increases the risk of seizures, indicating the need for immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing this finding are crucial in managing the client's condition and preventing complications.
2. A client is undergoing hemodialysis. The client’s blood pressure at the beginning of the procedure was 136/88 mm Hg, and now it is 110/54 mm Hg. What actions should the nurse perform to maintain blood pressure? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Adjust the rate of extracorporeal blood flow.
- B. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
- C. Administer a 250-mL bolus of normal saline.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During hemodialysis, a drop in blood pressure can occur due to fluid removal. To maintain blood pressure, the nurse should consider adjusting the rate of extracorporeal blood flow to optimize fluid removal without causing hypotension. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position can help improve venous return and cardiac output. Administering a bolus of normal saline can help increase intravascular volume and support blood pressure. Therefore, all the actions listed in choices A, B, and C are appropriate measures to maintain blood pressure during hemodialysis. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer as it encompasses all the relevant actions to address the dropping blood pressure effectively. Choices A, B, and C, when implemented together, can help manage hypotension during hemodialysis.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
- C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
- D. Barrel-shaped chest.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.
4. A nurse manager is reviewing the nurse’s documentation on the unit. Which of the following best describes the importance of this review?
- A. The nurse manager’s review of documentation is crucial to ensure that it meets legal and ethical standards and accurately reflects the care provided to patients.
- B. The nurse manager’s review of documentation is important to ensure that it is thorough, accurate, and reflects the nurse’s accountability for patient care.
- C. The nurse manager’s review of documentation is necessary to ensure that it is consistent with the unit’s policies and procedures and that it accurately reflects the care provided.
- D. The nurse manager’s review of documentation is essential to ensure that it meets regulatory requirements and that it supports the delivery of safe and effective patient care.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse manager's review of documentation is a critical aspect of maintaining quality patient care. Choice D is the correct answer as it highlights the importance of ensuring that documentation meets regulatory requirements, supporting the delivery of safe and effective patient care. Regulatory requirements are established to ensure that healthcare facilities function within established guidelines and standards, promoting patient safety and quality of care. Choices A, B, and C, although important aspects of documentation review, do not fully encapsulate the significant role of regulatory compliance in ensuring the overall quality and safety of patient care.
5. What is the role of the progesterone hormone?
- A. Stimulates the development of the nipple and duct system in the breast.
- B. Stimulates the storage of milk.
- C. Stimulates the secretion of relaxin.
- D. Stimulates the development of glandular tissue in the breast.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Progesterone hormone's role includes stimulating the development of the nipple and duct system in the breast. This hormone is crucial for preparing the breast for potential pregnancy by promoting the growth of structures necessary for milk production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because progesterone primarily focuses on preparing the breast for lactation rather than directly stimulating milk storage, relaxin secretion, or glandular tissue development.