Nursing Elites

1. During an examination for possible cryptorchidism in an infant, what technique should be used?

• A. Place the infant in a warm room and use a calm approach.
• B. Hold the scrotum and palpate gently.
• C. Cleanse the penis with an antiseptic-soaked pad.
• D. Position the infant in a warm room to prevent muscle contraction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When examining an infant for cryptorchidism, it is important to position the infant in a warm room to prevent muscle contraction, which could cause the testes to retract. Placing the infant in a side-lying position may not be necessary for this specific examination. Holding the penis or retracting the foreskin is not relevant to the assessment for cryptorchidism. Cleansing the penis with an antiseptic pad is not indicated for this examination.

2. A new mother asks the LPN/LVN, 'How do I know that my daughter is getting enough breast milk?' Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Weigh the baby daily, and if she is gaining weight, she is eating enough.
• B. Your milk is sufficient if the baby is voiding pale straw-colored urine 6 to 10 times a day.
• C. Offer the baby extra bottle milk after her feeding, and see if she is still hungry.
• D. If you're concerned, you might consider bottle feeding so that you can monitor her intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Adequate voiding is a sign that the baby is receiving enough milk. Pale straw-colored urine 6 to 10 times a day indicates proper hydration and nutrition. This is a reliable indicator of adequate breast milk intake for the infant. Choice A is incorrect because weight gain alone may not always indicate sufficient milk intake. Choice C is incorrect because supplementing with bottle milk can interfere with establishing breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests switching to bottle feeding, which is not necessary if the baby is latching and voiding well.

3. Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a laboring client's blood pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60. What action should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately.
• B. Continue to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes.
• C. Place the woman in a lateral position.
• D. Turn off the continuous epidural.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the woman in a lateral position is the appropriate action to improve venous return and cardiac output, helping to stabilize the blood pressure. This position can alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, reducing the risk of hypotension associated with epidural anesthesia. Turning off the continuous epidural would not be the initial action as it may not be necessary and could lead to inadequate pain relief for the client. Notifying the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately is premature and should be done after attempting non-invasive interventions. Continuing to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes is important, but placing the woman in a lateral position should be the first intervention to address the hypotension.

4. A 34-week primigravida woman with preeclampsia is receiving Lactated Ringer’s 500ml with magnesium sulfate 20 grams at the rate of 3g/hr. How many ml/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 75ml/hr
• B. 100ml/hr
• C. 50ml/hr
• D. 25ml/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total quantity to be infused (500ml) by the total time (1 hour) which equals 500ml/hr. Since the magnesium sulfate is being given at 3g/hr, and 1g of magnesium sulfate is in 5ml of solution, the rate will be 3g/hr x 5ml/g = 15ml/hr. Therefore, the total infusion rate should be 500ml/hr + 15ml/hr = 515ml/hr. Hence, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75ml/hr (515ml/hr total - 500ml/hr Lactated Ringer's rate). This choice is correct because it accounts for both the Lactated Ringer's and magnesium sulfate rates. Choice B, 100ml/hr, is incorrect as it does not consider the additional magnesium sulfate infusion rate. Choice C, 50ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the magnesium sulfate infusion. Choice D, 25ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too low and does not consider the magnesium sulfate being infused concurrently.

5. The nurse is caring for a 2-day old neonate who has not passed meconium and has a swollen abdomen. The healthcare provider reviews the flat plate X-ray of the abdomen and makes a tentative diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease. Which pathophysiological process is consistent with this neonate's clinical picture?

• A. The congenital absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells to large intestine produces no peristalsis.
• B. Pyloric obstruction causes reflux and projectile hematemesis.
• C. Partial imperforated anal opening limits passage of stools.
• D. Peristalsis moving against the intestinal obstruction causing hyperactivity of the bowel.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease is caused by the absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the large intestine, leading to a lack of peristalsis and obstruction.

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