Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with left-sided heart failure, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• D. Administer morphine as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial intervention for a client with left-sided heart failure. This action is crucial in improving oxygen levels and reducing pulmonary congestion. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function in heart failure, but it is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygenation. Administering loop diuretics helps manage fluid overload but should come after addressing oxygen needs. Morphine may be indicated for pain or anxiety in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

2. A female client with ovarian cancer is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm³
• B. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL
• D. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A white blood cell count of 2,000/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, requiring immediate intervention. Neutropenia, a low white blood cell count, is a common side effect of chemotherapy. A decreased white blood cell count compromises the immune system's ability to fight infections, making it a priority to address to prevent serious complications. Platelet count of 100,000/mm³ is relatively low but not as urgent as a severely low white blood cell count. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is within the normal range for females and does not require immediate intervention. Serum creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.

3. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Stridor
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that indicates a potential airway obstruction, which can be caused by an allergic reaction. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to ensure the client's airway is patent and to prevent respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone sodium but do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to airway obstruction indicated by stridor.

4. Following an open reduction of the tibia, the nurse notes bleeding on the client's cast. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to see if the area has increased
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• C. Apply a new cast to stop the bleeding
• D. Elevate the limb to reduce blood flow

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After an open reduction of the tibia, bleeding on the cast can be a concern. Outlining the area with ink and monitoring it every 15 minutes is the appropriate action to assess if the bleeding is worsening, indicating the need for further intervention. This action allows for close observation without disturbing the cast. Choice B is incorrect because while notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate action is not always necessary if the bleeding is not severe. Choice C is incorrect because applying a new cast is not the standard intervention for bleeding on a cast. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the limb may not address the underlying cause of bleeding and may not be the most appropriate action at this time.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 15 mEq/L
• D. Serum pH of 7.28

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum pH of 7.28 indicates metabolic acidosis in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to acidosis. Monitoring and correcting the pH level is crucial in managing DKA. Serum glucose levels may be high in DKA, but the immediate concern is correcting the acidosis to prevent complications. Serum potassium and bicarbonate levels are also important but not as immediately critical as correcting the acidosis in DKA.

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