HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. When organizing home visits for the day, which older client should the home health nurse plan to visit first?
- A. A woman who takes naproxen (Naprosyn) and reports a recent onset of dark, tarry stools.
- B. A man who receives weekly injections of epoetin (Procrit) for a low serum iron level.
- C. A man with emphysema who smokes and is complaining of white patches in his mouth.
- D. A frail woman with heart failure who reported a 2-pound weight gain in the last week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Dark, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Visiting this client first is crucial for prompt assessment and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent attention compared to the potential emergency indicated by dark, tarry stools.
2. The charge nurse observes a new nurse preparing to insert an intravenous (IV) catheter. The new nurse has gathered supplies, including intravenous catheters, an intravenous insertion kit, and a 4x4 sterile gauze dressing to cover and secure the insertion site. What action should the charge nurse take?
- A. Instruct the nurse to use a transparent dressing over the site
- B. Allow the new nurse to proceed with the procedure
- C. Assist the new nurse with the insertion
- D. Replace the 4x4 gauze with a larger dressing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the nurse to use a transparent dressing over the site. Transparent dressings allow for continuous observation of the IV site, reducing the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because the charge nurse should intervene to ensure the new nurse follows best practices. Choice C is incorrect as the charge nurse should not just assist but provide guidance on the correct procedure. Choice D is incorrect because the size of the dressing is not the issue; it's the type of dressing that allows for better observation.
3. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The nurse notices the client has more energy and is giving her belongings away. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Support the client by praising her progress.
- B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself.
- C. Reassure the client about the effectiveness of antidepressant drugs.
- D. Advise the client to keep her belongings for discharge.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself because increased energy and giving away belongings can be signs of suicidal ideation. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of self-harm. Choice C is incorrect because reassurance about medication effectiveness may not be appropriate in this situation. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the client's current behavior without addressing the underlying concern of potential self-harm.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL
- C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
- D. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client receiving erythropoietin therapy as it indicates hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. High potassium levels can lead to severe cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other laboratory values, though abnormal, do not present immediate life-threatening risks as hyperkalemia does.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Headache
- D. Elevated hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Increased fatigue.' In a client with CKD receiving erythropoietin therapy, increased fatigue can be a sign of polycythemia, a condition characterized by an elevated red blood cell count. This can lead to increased blood viscosity and raise the risk of thromboembolic events, necessitating immediate intervention. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is a common concern in CKD but does not require immediate intervention in this context. Headache (choice C) may be related to elevated blood pressure but is not the most critical finding requiring immediate attention. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention unless excessively high.
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