Nursing Elites

1. A postoperative client has received a dose of naloxone hydrochloride for respiratory depression shortly after transfer to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit. After administration of the medication, the nurse checks the client for:

• A. Pupillary changes
• B. Scattered lung wheezes
• C. Sudden increase in pain
• D. Sudden episodes of diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Naloxone hydrochloride is an antidote to opioids and may be administered to postoperative clients to address respiratory depression. This medication can also reverse the effects of analgesics, potentially leading to a sudden increase in pain. Therefore, the nurse must assess the client for any unexpected rise in pain levels after naloxone administration. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pupillary changes, scattered lung wheezes, and sudden episodes of diarrhea are not typically associated with naloxone administration for respiratory depression.

2. A client with hyperlipidemia is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• D. Take the medication with food.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan is to advise the client to avoid consuming grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can increase the risk of atorvastatin (Lipitor) toxicity by inhibiting its metabolism. Atorvastatin is typically taken in the evening as cholesterol synthesis occurs at night. Increasing dairy intake is not specifically recommended for atorvastatin therapy, and the medication can be taken with or without food.

3. When a client taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) is prescribed ciprofloxacin (Cipro), the nurse should closely monitor the client for which potential effect of this drug interaction?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased warfarin effectiveness
• C. Increased risk of thrombosis
• D. Decreased ciprofloxacin effectiveness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is given with warfarin sodium (Coumadin), it can potentiate the effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's INR levels and watch for signs of bleeding such as bruising, petechiae, or black tarry stools.

4. A client taking fexofenadine (Allegra) is scheduled for allergy skin testing and tells the nurse in the healthcare provider's office that a dose was taken this morning. The nurse determines that:

• A. The client should reschedule the appointment.
• B. A lower dose of allergen will need to be injected.
• C. A higher dose of allergen will need to be injected.
• D. The client should have the skin test read a day later than usual.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fexofenadine, an antihistamine, can cause false-negative readings in allergy skin testing and should be discontinued 3 days prior. Therefore, the client should reschedule the appointment to ensure accurate test results.

5. A client is being educated about the use of levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should avoid taking the medication with a high-protein meal.
• B. I may experience dizziness when getting up quickly.
• C. I might notice a darkening of my urine.
• D. I should report any uncontrolled movements to my healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) should not be taken with a high-protein meal as protein can interfere with the absorption of the medication. It is recommended to take it on an empty stomach or with a light meal. Choices B, C, and D are accurate statements regarding potential side effects and actions to take while on levodopa-carbidopa therapy, indicating a good understanding by the client.

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