HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. A postoperative client has received a dose of naloxone hydrochloride for respiratory depression shortly after transfer to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit. After administration of the medication, the nurse checks the client for:
- A. Pupillary changes
- B. Scattered lung wheezes
- C. Sudden increase in pain
- D. Sudden episodes of diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone hydrochloride is an antidote to opioids and may be administered to postoperative clients to address respiratory depression. This medication can also reverse the effects of analgesics, potentially leading to a sudden increase in pain. Therefore, the nurse must assess the client for any unexpected rise in pain levels after naloxone administration. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pupillary changes, scattered lung wheezes, and sudden episodes of diarrhea are not typically associated with naloxone administration for respiratory depression.
2. When is the best time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone?
- A. At noon
- B. At bedtime
- C. Early morning
- D. Anytime, at the same time each day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone is early morning. Corticosteroids like prednisone should be taken in the morning to mimic the body's natural hormone release pattern. This timing helps reduce the risk of disrupting the body's internal clock and minimizes the potential for insomnia or other sleep disturbances.
3. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?
- A. Increased thirst
- B. Fine hand tremors
- C. Frequent urination
- D. Persistent vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Persistent vomiting can be a sign of lithium toxicity, which requires immediate medical attention. Increased thirst, fine hand tremors, and frequent urination are common side effects of lithium.
4. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:
- A. Should always be taken with food or antacids
- B. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
- C. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
- D. May not be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions, including sweat, tears, urine, and feces. It can also permanently stain soft contact lenses. It is essential to take rifampin exactly as directed and not discontinue it without consulting the healthcare provider.
5. The client with metastatic breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Glucose level
- B. Calcium level
- C. Potassium level
- D. Prothrombin time
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Calcium level. Tamoxifen may increase calcium levels, leading to hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include increased urine volume, excessive thirst, nausea, vomiting, constipation, muscle weakness, and bone pain. Monitoring serum calcium levels is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen does not directly affect glucose, potassium, or prothrombin time levels significantly.
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