Nursing Elites

1. A client who had a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is paralyzed on the left side of the body and has developed a Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip. Which nursing diagnosis describes this client's current health status?

• A. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to impaired physical mobility
• B. Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure
• C. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inability to move self in bed
• D. Impaired physical mobility related to the left side paralysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for this client is 'Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure.' The client's Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip is a clear indication of impaired skin integrity resulting from altered circulation and pressure due to immobility. Choice A is incorrect because the client already has a pressure ulcer, indicating an actual impairment rather than a risk. Choice C is incorrect as ineffective tissue perfusion is not the primary issue in this case. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses solely on the paralysis and not the actual skin integrity issue.

2. An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse's attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?

• A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
• B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
• C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
• D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facilitating a meeting for the nurses to identify ways of working together is the best action for the nurse manager. This approach promotes open communication, collaboration, and allows both nurses to express their concerns and perspectives. Option A may not address the underlying issues between the nurses and involving a mental health consultant may not be necessary at this stage. Option B, while listening is important, may not fully resolve the conflict without a structured plan. Option C focuses solely on the senior nurse without involving the new graduate in resolving the situation.

3. When administering an intramuscular injection containing 3 ml of a painful medication, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Instill the medication quickly
• B. Insert the needle slowly
• C. Select a large, deep muscle mass
• D. Use a short, small gauge needle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Select a large, deep muscle mass. When administering an intramuscular injection with a painful medication volume of 3 ml, selecting a large and deep muscle mass is crucial. This intervention reduces discomfort for the patient and ensures proper absorption of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because instilling the medication quickly can increase discomfort. Choice B is incorrect as inserting the needle slowly may prolong the discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as using a short, small gauge needle may not be suitable for delivering 3 ml of medication effectively into the muscle.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the laboratory value that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. PTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is specifically sensitive to heparin's anticoagulant effects. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation without increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important laboratory values in other contexts, they are not specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?

• A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
• B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
• C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
• D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.

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