HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. A client is leaving the hospital against medical advice (AMA) and voluntarily signs the AMA form. Which nursing action is essential prior to the client leaving?
- A. Remove the client's peripheral IV access
- B. Administer requested pain relief medication
- C. Obtain the client's neurological vital signs
- D. Provide the client with the hospital's phone number
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Removing the client's peripheral IV access is essential before the client leaves against medical advice to prevent complications such as infection, thrombosis, or bleeding. Administering pain relief medication (choice B) can be important but not essential at this point. Obtaining neurological vital signs (choice C) is not specifically required before the client leaves. Providing the client with the hospital's phone number (choice D) may be helpful but is not as essential as ensuring the safe removal of IV access.
2. A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency center with dysphagia, drooling, a fever of 102°F, and stridor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the child in a mist tent
- B. Obtain a sputum culture
- C. Prepare for an emergent tracheostomy
- D. Examine the child's oropharynx and report the findings to the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a 3-year-old boy presenting with dysphagia, drooling, fever, and stridor, the priority intervention should be to place the child in a mist tent. This intervention helps alleviate respiratory distress, providing immediate relief. Options B, C, and D are not as urgent as ensuring the child's airway is managed effectively. Obtaining a sputum culture, preparing for a tracheostomy, and examining the oropharynx can be done after stabilizing the child's respiratory status.
3. Several clients on a telemetry unit are scheduled for discharge in the morning, but a telemetry-monitored bed is needed immediately. The charge nurse should make arrangements to transfer which client to another medical unit?
- A. Learning to self-administer insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus
- B. Ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago
- C. Wearing a sling immobilizer following permanent pacemaker insertion earlier that day
- D. Experiencing syncopal episodes resulting from the dehydration caused by severe diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because transferring a stable client who is learning self-care, such as self-administering insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, provides the needed telemetry-monitored bed without compromising the client's care. Choice B should not be transferred as the client is ambulatory following surgery and does not require telemetry monitoring. Choice C should not be transferred as the client is wearing a sling immobilizer following pacemaker insertion, which requires close monitoring. Choice D should not be transferred as the client is experiencing syncopal episodes due to severe dehydration, necessitating telemetry monitoring for immediate intervention.
4. A client admitted to the hospital for depression is escorted to a private room. Prior to leaving the room, what intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Explain the program's guidelines
- B. Search all personal belongings
- C. Initiate psychosocial assessment
- D. Review the healthcare provider's prescription
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Searching personal belongings is essential to ensure the safety of the client by preventing access to items that could be used for self-harm. While explaining the program's guidelines (Choice A) and initiating a psychosocial assessment (Choice C) are important aspects of care, the immediate concern in this situation is the safety of the client. Reviewing the healthcare provider's prescription (Choice D) is important for providing appropriate treatment but is not as urgent as ensuring the client's safety.
5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnea. The nurse notes that the client has a productive cough with pink, frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Perform chest physiotherapy
- C. Elevate the head of the bed
- D. Obtain a sputum specimen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with heart failure presenting with worsening dyspnea and pink, frothy sputum (indicating pulmonary edema), the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and alleviate dyspnea by increasing the oxygen supply to the lungs. Performing chest physiotherapy, elevating the head of the bed, or obtaining a sputum specimen are not the initial actions indicated in this situation and may delay addressing the client's immediate need for improved oxygenation.
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