Nursing Elites

1. A client tells the nurse, 'I have something very important to tell you if you promise not to tell.' The best response by the nurse is

• A. I must document and report any information.
• B. I can't make such a promise.
• C. That depends on what you tell me.
• D. I must report everything to the treatment team.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse cannot promise confidentiality in this context. It is essential to prioritize the safety and well-being of the client and others. Certain information, such as harm to oneself or others, must be reported to ensure appropriate interventions are taken. Choice A is incorrect because while documentation is important, confidentiality cannot be guaranteed in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should not make promises that may conflict with their professional responsibilities. Choice D is incorrect as reporting everything to the treatment team without discretion may breach client confidentiality.

2. A young adult was hit in the temporal area with a baseball bat and is being monitored for signs of a closed head injury. Which finding indicates a developing epidural hematoma?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury.
• C. Severe headache and blurred vision.
• D. Loss of motor function on the affected side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after a temporal injury is a classic sign of epidural hematoma, which is a neurosurgical emergency. This finding occurs due to the rapid expansion of the hematoma, causing compression of the brain. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are more commonly associated with other types of head injuries, such as concussion. Severe headache and blurred vision (choice C) are symptoms seen in various head injuries but are not specific to epidural hematomas. Loss of motor function on the affected side (choice D) is more indicative of a different type of head injury, such as a contusion or intracerebral hematoma.

3. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• B. Administer an intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section.
• D. Place the client in a lateral position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.

4. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to

• A. Administer the medication in 2 separate injections
• B. Give the medication in the dorsal gluteal site
• C. Call to get a smaller volume ordered
• D. Check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Injections over 1 mL should be split into two separate injections for young children. This helps in preventing discomfort, ensuring proper absorption, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Giving the medication in one injection of 2.0 ml might be too much for a 2-year-old child. Choices B and D are incorrect because the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential injury, and changing the form of medication might not be necessary if the volume can be adjusted. Choice C is unnecessary as splitting the dose into two injections is the appropriate action.

5. The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a 'flea bite' type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?

• A. We need to monitor the rash for signs of worsening or fever
• B. Your baby may have an allergic reaction to laundry detergent
• C. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days
• D. This is likely a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The rash described is typical of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and benign newborn rash that resolves on its own within a few days. No treatment is necessary, and the nurse should reassure the mother. Choice A is incorrect as the rash is self-limiting and does not require monitoring for worsening signs or fever. Choice B is incorrect as erythema toxicum neonatorum is not caused by an allergic reaction to laundry detergent. Choice D is incorrect as this rash is not indicative of a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics.

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