Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Increase fluid intake with meals
• B. Avoid lying down for at least 30 minutes after eating
• C. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
• D. Consume spicy foods in moderation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching for a client with GERD is to eat small, frequent meals throughout the day. This recommendation helps reduce symptoms by preventing the stomach from becoming overly full, which can increase pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter and lead to acid reflux. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluid intake with meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms, lying down after eating can worsen reflux, and consuming spicy foods can trigger acid reflux in individuals with GERD.

2. The nurse is providing care for a client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with the tube?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 15 degrees during feedings
• B. Aspirate gastric contents before administering medications
• C. Clamp the tube between feedings
• D. Flush the tube with water before and after feedings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flushing the PEG tube with water before and after feedings helps prevent clogging and maintains tube patency. Proper flushing is essential for avoiding complications related to tube blockages. Elevating the head of the bed is important for preventing aspiration during and after feedings, not specifically related to PEG tube complications. Aspirating gastric contents before administering medications is not routinely recommended for PEG tube care. Clamping the tube between feedings can lead to tube occlusion and is not a standard practice in PEG tube care.

3. A client with pneumonia is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

• A. Client's respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 20 breaths per minute
• B. White blood cell count decreases to normal range
• C. Client reports increased energy levels
• D. Cough becomes productive with green sputum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment and the client's condition is improving. Monitoring the white blood cell count is a more objective indicator of the body's response to the antibiotics. Choices A, C, and D may also be positive signs, but they are less specific and may vary among individuals. Respiratory rate alone may not be sufficient to indicate improvement, as other factors can influence it. Energy levels and cough characteristics are subjective and may not always correlate with the effectiveness of antibiotic treatment.

4. An adult client is admitted to the emergency department after falling from a ladder. While waiting to have a CT scan, the client requests something for a severe headache. When the nurse offers a prescribed dose of acetaminophen, the client asks for something stronger. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication instead
• B. Explain the reason for using only non-narcotics
• C. Consult the healthcare provider about a stronger medication
• D. Administer a stronger medication as requested

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should explain the reason for using only non-narcotics. Following head trauma, non-narcotic medications such as acetaminophen are preferred to avoid masking symptoms of neurological changes, such as increased intracranial pressure, that could worsen after stronger pain medication. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it may not address the severity of the headache. Consulting the healthcare provider about a stronger medication (Choice C) is important, but the immediate need is to educate the client on the rationale for using non-narcotic medications first. Administering a stronger medication as requested (Choice D) could potentially mask important symptoms and should be avoided in this situation.

5. The nurse is caring for a 24-month-old toddler who has sensory sensitivity, difficulty engaging in social interactions, and has not yet spoken two-word phrases. Which assessment should the nurse administer?

• A. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test
• B. The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT)
• C. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence
• D. Denver Developmental Screening Test

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT) is specifically designed to screen for autism spectrum disorders in young children. It is appropriate for this child, given the signs of social and communication delays. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (Choice A) assesses receptive vocabulary and may not capture the social and communication aspects seen in autism. The Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (Choice C) measures cognitive ability and may not address the social and communication delays. The Denver Developmental Screening Test (Choice D) is a broad developmental assessment tool, but the M-CHAT is more specific to screening for autism in this case.

Similar Questions