a client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites and peripheral edema what is the nurses priority intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. A client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer furosemide as prescribed. Administering furosemide, a loop diuretic, is the priority intervention in a client with cirrhosis experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps promote diuresis and reduce fluid buildup in the body. Choice B, administering albumin to increase oncotic pressure, may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority intervention for immediate fluid removal. Elevating the client's legs (Choice C) and administering a sodium-restricted diet (Choice D) are important aspects of managing edema and ascites but are not the priority interventions in this situation.

2. To prevent unnecessary hypoxia during suctioning of a tracheostomy, what must the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply suction for no more than 10 seconds. Prolonged suctioning can lead to hypoxia, so it is essential to limit the suctioning time. Maintaining sterile technique (choice B) is important to prevent infections but is not directly related to preventing hypoxia during suctioning. Lubricating the catheter tip (choice C) helps with insertion but does not specifically address hypoxia prevention. Withdrawing the catheter in a circular motion (choice D) is not a standard practice during tracheostomy suctioning and does not help prevent hypoxia.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV infusion of isoproterenol in D5W at 300 mcg/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse set the pump to?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct infusion rate, convert 300 mcg/hour to mg/hour (300 mcg = 0.3 mg). Since the IV solution is 1 mg in 250 ml, the rate is calculated as 0.3 mg/hour = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to 75 ml/hour. Choice A (100 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (60 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is lower than the correct rate. Choice D (125 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is higher than the correct rate.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia. What is the most critical finding to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A significant drop in blood pressure following anesthesia could indicate a serious reaction, such as hypovolemia or anesthetic-induced hypotension. This requires immediate medical attention, while other symptoms like dizziness, mild nausea, and dry mouth are more common and less critical. Dizziness could be expected due to the effects of anesthesia, mild nausea is a common side effect, and dry mouth is a known effect of anesthesia as well.

5. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.

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