Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer furosemide as prescribed.
• B. Administer albumin to increase oncotic pressure.
• C. Elevate the client's legs to reduce swelling.
• D. Administer a sodium-restricted diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer furosemide as prescribed. Administering furosemide, a loop diuretic, is the priority intervention in a client with cirrhosis experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps promote diuresis and reduce fluid buildup in the body. Choice B, administering albumin to increase oncotic pressure, may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority intervention for immediate fluid removal. Elevating the client's legs (Choice C) and administering a sodium-restricted diet (Choice D) are important aspects of managing edema and ascites but are not the priority interventions in this situation.

2. A client with a history of closed head injury has a radial artery catheter in place and complains of numbness and pain distal to the insertion site. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the site for further complications.
• B. Promptly remove the catheter from the radial artery.
• C. Elevate the client’s arm above the heart.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider and prepare for surgery.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weak pulse and numbness distal to a radial artery catheter may indicate occlusion or damage to the artery, and immediate removal of the catheter is necessary to prevent complications. Therefore, promptly removing the catheter from the radial artery (Choice B) is the correct action. Monitoring the site (Choice A) would delay necessary intervention, elevating the client's arm (Choice C) may not address the underlying issue, and notifying the healthcare provider for surgery (Choice D) without removing the catheter promptly could lead to further complications.

3. A client with Cushing's syndrome presents with excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Administer insulin per sliding scale protocol.
• C. Administer intravenous fluids.
• D. Check the client's skin for signs of bruising.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excessive bruising and elevated blood glucose are common symptoms of Cushing's syndrome. The nurse should first check the client's blood glucose level to assess and address the hyperglycemia promptly. Administering insulin or IV fluids would be premature without knowing the current blood glucose level. Checking the skin for bruising, although important for overall assessment, does not address the immediate concern of elevated blood glucose.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just received anesthesia. What is the most critical finding to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Client reports dizziness
• B. Client has a drop in blood pressure
• C. Client experiences mild nausea
• D. Client reports dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A significant drop in blood pressure following anesthesia could indicate a serious reaction, such as hypovolemia or anesthetic-induced hypotension. This requires immediate medical attention, while other symptoms like dizziness, mild nausea, and dry mouth are more common and less critical. Dizziness could be expected due to the effects of anesthesia, mild nausea is a common side effect, and dry mouth is a known effect of anesthesia as well.

5. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

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