a client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites and peripheral edema what is the nurses priority intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. A client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer furosemide as prescribed. Administering furosemide, a loop diuretic, is the priority intervention in a client with cirrhosis experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps promote diuresis and reduce fluid buildup in the body. Choice B, administering albumin to increase oncotic pressure, may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority intervention for immediate fluid removal. Elevating the client's legs (Choice C) and administering a sodium-restricted diet (Choice D) are important aspects of managing edema and ascites but are not the priority interventions in this situation.

2. An 11-year-old client admitted to the mental health unit after threatening self-harm. What is the best activity to establish rapport and promote coping?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Playing a board game with the client is an effective way to establish rapport in a relaxed setting, allowing the client to open up about stressors. This activity promotes coping by creating a safe and engaging environment for the client to express their feelings. Choices A, C, and D may not be suitable initially as they involve more formal or intrusive approaches that may not be suitable for building rapport with a client experiencing emotional distress.

3. A male client with heart failure presents with shortness of breath, audible wheezing, and pink frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed. In heart failure, morphine helps reduce anxiety, preload, and afterload on the heart, improving oxygenation. The client's symptoms indicate acute decompensated heart failure, and morphine should be administered promptly to relieve distress. Consulting the charge nurse (Choice A) or withholding morphine (Choice C) would delay necessary treatment. Reviewing the prescription with the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not needed in this acute situation.

4. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What lab value should the nurse review before administering the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International Normalized Ratio (INR). Before administering warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should review the INR to ensure the client is within the therapeutic range. INR is specifically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary lab value used to monitor warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to measure how long blood takes to clot. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) assess for anemia and the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

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