HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer furosemide as prescribed.
- B. Administer albumin to increase oncotic pressure.
- C. Elevate the client's legs to reduce swelling.
- D. Administer a sodium-restricted diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer furosemide as prescribed. Administering furosemide, a loop diuretic, is the priority intervention in a client with cirrhosis experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps promote diuresis and reduce fluid buildup in the body. Choice B, administering albumin to increase oncotic pressure, may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority intervention for immediate fluid removal. Elevating the client's legs (Choice C) and administering a sodium-restricted diet (Choice D) are important aspects of managing edema and ascites but are not the priority interventions in this situation.
2. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Maintain a consistent intake of leafy green vegetables
- B. Use an electric razor when shaving
- C. Monitor blood pressure daily
- D. Avoid eating bananas and oranges
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients on warfarin are at increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant effects. Using an electric razor reduces the risk of cuts and bleeding, which is an important safety precaution. While leafy greens should not be avoided, their intake should be consistent to maintain a stable level of vitamin K in the body. Monitoring blood pressure daily is important for other conditions but not directly related to warfarin therapy. Avoiding bananas and oranges is not a standard instruction for clients on warfarin.
3. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
- B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
- D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.
4. What is the primary purpose of the logrolling technique for turning?
- A. To decrease the risk of back injury by working together.
- B. To maintain straight spinal alignment.
- C. To increase client safety by using two or three people.
- D. To reduce the likelihood of skin damage by turning instead of pulling.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To maintain straight spinal alignment. Logrolling is a technique used to carefully turn a client while keeping the spine in a straight line, especially important for those with spinal injuries or after back surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose is not specifically to decrease the risk of back injury but to ensure safe turning. Choice C is incorrect as the main aim is not to increase client safety by using multiple people but to protect the spine. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of logrolling is not to prevent skin damage but to safeguard the spine during turning.
5. When taking a health history, which information collected by the nurse correlates most directly to a diagnosis of chronic peripheral arterial insufficiency?
- A. Reports of leg cramping at rest
- B. Family history of heart disease
- C. Current use of beta-blockers
- D. History of intermittent claudication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Intermittent claudication, or pain in the legs while walking that is relieved by rest, is a classic symptom of peripheral arterial insufficiency. Other factors such as a family history or medication use may contribute to cardiovascular health, but claudication is the most specific indicator. Leg cramping at rest is more indicative of conditions like peripheral neuropathy or deep vein thrombosis. Family history of heart disease and current use of beta-blockers are relevant to overall cardiovascular health, but they are not as directly related to chronic peripheral arterial insufficiency as intermittent claudication.
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