HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer furosemide as prescribed.
- B. Administer albumin to increase oncotic pressure.
- C. Elevate the client's legs to reduce swelling.
- D. Administer a sodium-restricted diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer furosemide as prescribed. Administering furosemide, a loop diuretic, is the priority intervention in a client with cirrhosis experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps promote diuresis and reduce fluid buildup in the body. Choice B, administering albumin to increase oncotic pressure, may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority intervention for immediate fluid removal. Elevating the client's legs (Choice C) and administering a sodium-restricted diet (Choice D) are important aspects of managing edema and ascites but are not the priority interventions in this situation.
2. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and reports feeling chilled and short of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
- C. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of diphenhydramine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving a blood transfusion reports feeling chilled and short of breath is to stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider. These symptoms could indicate a transfusion reaction, which can be serious and even life-threatening. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further adverse reactions, and notifying the healthcare provider ensures timely intervention and appropriate management. Administering antihistamines, acetaminophen, or diphenhydramine is not the priority in this situation and may delay necessary actions to address the potential transfusion reaction.
3. The nurse is caring for a client who has COPD and chest pain related to a recent fall. What nursing intervention requires the greatest caution when caring for a client with COPD?
- A. Administering narcotics for pain relief
- B. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake
- C. Applying oxygen therapy at a high flow rate
- D. Assisting the client with deep breathing exercises
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Applying oxygen therapy at a high flow rate. In clients with COPD, high levels of supplemental oxygen can suppress the hypoxic drive to breathe, leading to carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. Oxygen therapy must be administered cautiously to prevent worsening respiratory status. Administering narcotics for pain relief (Choice A) can be necessary but should be done judiciously. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) and assisting with deep breathing exercises (Choice D) are generally beneficial interventions for clients with COPD and should not require the same level of caution as high-flow oxygen therapy.
4. While auscultating heart sounds, the nurse hears a swishing sound. How should this sound be documented?
- A. Heart murmur.
- B. Murmur.
- C. S3 sound.
- D. S4 sound.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Murmur.' A murmur is a swishing sound heard during auscultation, typically caused by turbulent blood flow through the heart or valves. Choices C and D, 'S3 sound' and 'S4 sound,' refer to specific heart sounds associated with different cardiac conditions, not the general description of a swishing sound. Choice A, 'Heart murmur,' is redundant as 'murmur' alone is sufficient to describe the swishing sound heard.
5. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?
- A. Mild impairment
- B. Moderate impairment
- C. Severe impairment
- D. Normal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.
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