HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer furosemide as prescribed.
- B. Administer albumin to increase oncotic pressure.
- C. Elevate the client's legs to reduce swelling.
- D. Administer a sodium-restricted diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer furosemide as prescribed. Administering furosemide, a loop diuretic, is the priority intervention in a client with cirrhosis experiencing ascites and peripheral edema. Furosemide helps promote diuresis and reduce fluid buildup in the body. Choice B, administering albumin to increase oncotic pressure, may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority intervention for immediate fluid removal. Elevating the client's legs (Choice C) and administering a sodium-restricted diet (Choice D) are important aspects of managing edema and ascites but are not the priority interventions in this situation.
2. A client with pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Monitor blood pressure frequently
- B. Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate
- C. Administer pain medication to reduce discomfort
- D. Give antihypertensive medications as prescribed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start intravenous fluids at a fast rate. In a client with pheochromocytoma, the highest priority intervention is to ensure adequate intravascular volume before initiating any other treatment. This helps prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur due to the release of catecholamines during tumor manipulation. While monitoring blood pressure frequently is essential, ensuring adequate intravascular volume takes precedence. Administering pain medication and antihypertensive medications are important but are not the highest priority in the initial management of pheochromocytoma.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's oxygenation is improving?
- A. Pulse oximetry reading of 94%
- B. Heart rate increases from 80 to 90 beats per minute
- C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 20 breaths per minute
- D. Client reports increased energy levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 94% indicates adequate oxygenation. Monitoring oxygen saturation is the most objective way to assess the effectiveness of oxygen therapy. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the client's oxygenation status. An increase in heart rate or respiratory rate may indicate increased work of breathing or stress on the body. The client reporting increased energy levels is subjective and may not directly correlate with improved oxygenation.
4. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor the client for bradycardia.
- B. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of hyperglycemia.
- D. Monitor for signs of fluid retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which of the following interventions is a priority to maintain client safety?
- A. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours
- B. Check the tube placement before each feeding
- C. Secure the tube to the client's nose with tape
- D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the correct placement of a nasogastric tube before each feeding is essential to prevent aspiration and ensure that the tube is properly positioned in the stomach or intestine. This action is a priority to maintain client safety. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours is important for tube patency but is not the priority over verifying placement. Securing the tube with tape and keeping the head of the bed elevated are crucial but are considered secondary measures compared to confirming the correct tube placement.
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