a client with diabetic ketoacidosis dka is receiving an insulin infusion which finding indicates that the treatment is effective
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving an insulin infusion. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absence of ketones in the urine. In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) receiving an insulin infusion, the absence of ketones in the urine indicates that ketoacidosis is resolving. This is a crucial finding as it shows that the insulin therapy is effectively addressing the metabolic imbalance causing DKA. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within normal range but does not directly reflect the resolution of DKA; a blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL, while improved, is still high and does not specifically indicate the resolution of ketoacidosis; urine output of 50 mL/hour is within normal limits but does not directly point to the resolution of DKA.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is considered low, indicating hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement is the nurse's priority action to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Encouraging the client to eat potassium-rich foods is beneficial in the long term but may not rapidly correct the low potassium level. Holding the next dose of furosemide may worsen the client's heart failure symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake is not the priority action in this situation; addressing the low potassium level takes precedence to prevent potential serious complications.

3. A client with a venous leg ulcer is receiving compression therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cool extremities and weak peripheral pulses indicate compromised circulation, possibly due to inadequate arterial blood supply. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue damage or non-healing ulcers. Option A, decreased pain and increased redness, can be a sign of improving wound condition. Option B, increased serous drainage, may indicate a normal part of the healing process. Option D, pitting edema, is common in venous leg ulcers and may not require immediate intervention unless severe and accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

4. While caring for a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes purulent drainage at the wound. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should review which of the client's laboratory values?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Purulent drainage suggests an infection at the wound site. Reviewing the culture and sensitivity results will guide appropriate antibiotic treatment by identifying the causative organisms and their antibiotic sensitivities. Elevated white blood cells indicate infection but do not specify the organism. Creatinine and hemoglobin values are unrelated to wound infections.

5. The nurse is administering an intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test. Which technique should the nurse use?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test should be administered using a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle. This technique ensures that the medication is delivered into the dermis layer of the skin. Choice A is incorrect because a 25-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection. Choice C is incorrect as a 22-gauge needle is also too large and the angle is too steep for an intradermal injection. Choice D is incorrect as a 20-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection, and a 90-degree angle would not deliver the medication accurately into the dermis.

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