Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving an insulin infusion. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L.
• B. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
• C. Urine output of 50 mL/hour.
• D. Absence of ketones in the urine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absence of ketones in the urine. In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) receiving an insulin infusion, the absence of ketones in the urine indicates that ketoacidosis is resolving. This is a crucial finding as it shows that the insulin therapy is effectively addressing the metabolic imbalance causing DKA. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within normal range but does not directly reflect the resolution of DKA; a blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL, while improved, is still high and does not specifically indicate the resolution of ketoacidosis; urine output of 50 mL/hour is within normal limits but does not directly point to the resolution of DKA.

2. A client with asthma is experiencing wheezing. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator immediately.
• B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
• C. Perform a chest x-ray to assess lung function.
• D. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer a bronchodilator immediately. Wheezing in a client with asthma indicates bronchoconstriction, which can compromise airflow. Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention as it helps to open the airways, relieve bronchoconstriction, and improve breathing. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority when the airways are constricted. Performing a chest x-ray (choice C) is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) may provide some relief, but administering a bronchodilator to address the bronchoconstriction is the priority intervention.

3. A client reports gastrointestinal upset after taking oral tetracycline. Which snack should the nurse recommend?

• A. Yogurt with fruit
• B. Toast with jelly
• C. Crackers with peanut butter
• D. Oatmeal with raisins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Toast with jelly. Tetracycline can cause gastrointestinal upset when taken with dairy products. Yogurt with fruit (Choice A) contains dairy, which can worsen the gastrointestinal upset. Crackers with peanut butter (Choice C) and oatmeal with raisins (Choice D) are also not the best choices as they may not be gentle enough on the stomach. Toast with jelly is a simple snack that does not contain dairy and is less likely to exacerbate the gastrointestinal upset.

4. A male client with heart failure becomes short of breath, anxious, and has pink frothy sputum. What is the first action the nurse should take?

• A. Consult the charge nurse about administering morphine.
• B. Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed.
• C. Withhold the morphine until the dyspnea resolves.
• D. Review the need for the morphine prescription with the provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed. In this situation, the client is experiencing symptoms of acute pulmonary edema, a complication of heart failure. Morphine is indicated as it helps reduce anxiety and respiratory distress by decreasing preload and afterload. It dilates blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart and improving oxygenation. The priority is to administer the morphine promptly to alleviate the client's distress and improve oxygenation. Consulting the charge nurse (A) or reviewing the need for the morphine prescription with the provider (D) would cause a delay in providing essential treatment. Withholding the morphine (C) would not be appropriate as it is indicated for this condition.

5. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

• A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
• B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
• C. Recent history of smoking.
• D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.

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