HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. A client receives a prescription for 1 liter of lactated Ringer's intravenously to be infused over 6 hours. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is needed, round to the nearest whole number.)
- A. 167 mL/hr
- B. 200 mL/hr
- C. 83 mL/hr
- D. 111 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct infusion rate is 167 mL/hr. This is calculated by dividing the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time (6 hours), resulting in 166.67 mL/hr, which should be rounded to the nearest whole number as 167 mL/hr. This calculation ensures a steady infusion rate over the specified time frame. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the volume and time provided in the prescription.
2. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following?
- A. Hyponatremia.
- B. Hypokalemia.
- C. Hyperkalemia.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: The correct answer is C, 'Hyperkalemia.' Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is a medication used to treat high potassium levels (hyperkalemia) by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium removal from the body. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for changes in potassium levels to assess the effectiveness of the medication and prevent potential complications related to hyperkalemia. Choice A, 'Hyponatremia,' is incorrect as Kayexalate does not primarily affect sodium levels. Choice B, 'Hypokalemia,' is incorrect as Kayexalate is used to treat high potassium levels, not low. Choice D, 'Hypocalcemia,' is incorrect as Kayexalate does not directly impact calcium levels.
3. What is the correct procedure for performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a client's right retina?
- A. Instruct the client to focus on a distant object behind the examiner and not move their eyes during the exam.
- B. Set the ophthalmoscope on the plus 2 to 3 lens and hold it in front of the examiner's right eye.
- C. From a distance of 12 to 15 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil.
- D. For optimal visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's eye.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During an ophthalmoscopic examination, the client should focus on a distant object behind the examiner to dilate the pupil, and the examiner should stand at a distance of 12-15 inches away and slightly to the side. This angle allows for better visualization of the retina. Holding the ophthalmoscope firmly against the examiner's face and shining the light into the client's pupil helps examine the retina effectively. Choice A is incorrect because the client should look at a distant object, not the examiner's nose. Choice B is incorrect as the ophthalmoscope should be directed towards the client's eye, not the examiner's eye. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches away may not provide an optimal view of the retina.
4. The client with chronic renal failure is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer the prescribed antibiotics.
- B. Monitor for signs of infection.
- C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- D. Monitor the client's weight daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in clients undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is a severe complication associated with peritoneal dialysis, making it essential to promptly identify any signs of infection, such as abdominal pain, cloudy dialysate, fever, and an elevated white blood cell count. Administering antibiotics without proper assessment can lead to antibiotic resistance and should not be the initial action. Encouraging increased fluid intake may not be appropriate without assessing the client's fluid status. Monitoring weight alone does not address the immediate risk of peritonitis in a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis.
5. A client who is postmenopausal and has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months asks, “I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?” How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your immune system becomes less effective as you age.
- B. Low estrogen levels can make the tissue more susceptible to infection.
- C. You should be more careful with your personal hygiene in this area.
- D. It is likely that you have an untreated sexually transmitted disease.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Low estrogen levels in postmenopausal women decrease moisture and secretions in the perineal area, causing tissue changes that predispose them to infection, including urethritis. This is a common reason for urethritis in postmenopausal women. While immune function does decrease with aging and sexually transmitted diseases can cause urethritis, the most likely reason in this case is the low estrogen levels. Personal hygiene practices are usually not a significant factor in the development of urethritis.
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