Nursing Elites

1. A client receives a prescription for 1 liter of lactated Ringer's intravenously to be infused over 6 hours. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is needed, round to the nearest whole number.)

• A. 167 mL/hr
• B. 200 mL/hr
• C. 83 mL/hr
• D. 111 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct infusion rate is 167 mL/hr. This is calculated by dividing the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time (6 hours), resulting in 166.67 mL/hr, which should be rounded to the nearest whole number as 167 mL/hr. This calculation ensures a steady infusion rate over the specified time frame. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the volume and time provided in the prescription.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who will receive oral levofloxacin (Levaquin) to treat pneumonia. The patient takes an oral hypoglycemic medication and uses over-the-counter (OTC) antacids to treat occasional heartburn. The patient reports frequent arthritis pain and takes acetaminophen when needed. Which statement by the nurse is correct when teaching this patient?

• A. You may take antacids with levofloxacin to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
• B. You may take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs) for arthritis pain.
• C. You should monitor your serum glucose more closely while taking levofloxacin.
• D. You should take levofloxacin on an empty stomach to improve absorption.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levofloxacin may increase the effects of oral hypoglycemic medications, so patients taking these should be advised to monitor their serum glucose levels closely.

3. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
• B. Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
• C. Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
• D. Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.

4. A client has a long history of hypertension. Which category of medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to avoid chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Antibiotic
• B. Histamine blocker
• C. Bronchodilator
• D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. By blocking this conversion, ACE inhibitors promote vasodilation and improve perfusion to the kidneys. Additionally, ACE inhibitors block the breakdown of bradykinin and prostaglandin, further contributing to vasodilation. They also lead to increased renin and decreased aldosterone levels. These effects help in reducing blood pressure and protecting the kidneys in clients with hypertension. Antibiotics are used to fight infections, histamine blockers reduce inflammation, and bronchodilators widen the bronchi, none of which address the underlying processes involved in slowing the progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD) in hypertensive clients.

5. A serum phenytoin determination is prescribed for a client with a seizure disorder who is taking phenytoin (Dilantin). Which result indicates that the prescribed dose of phenytoin is therapeutic?

• A. 3 mcg/mL
• B. 8 mcg/mL
• C. 16 mcg/mL
• D. 28 mcg/mL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 16 mcg/mL (Choice C). The therapeutic serum phenytoin range is typically 10 to 20 mcg/mL. A level below this range may lead to continued seizure activity, indicating subtherapeutic levels. Choices A, B, and D are below the therapeutic range and would not be considered therapeutic for a client with a seizure disorder on phenytoin therapy.

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