Nursing Elites

1. A client receives a prescription for 1 liter of lactated Ringer's intravenously to be infused over 6 hours. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is needed, round to the nearest whole number.)

• A. 167 mL/hr
• B. 200 mL/hr
• C. 83 mL/hr
• D. 111 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct infusion rate is 167 mL/hr. This is calculated by dividing the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time (6 hours), resulting in 166.67 mL/hr, which should be rounded to the nearest whole number as 167 mL/hr. This calculation ensures a steady infusion rate over the specified time frame. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the volume and time provided in the prescription.

2. A 58-year-old client who has been post-menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition. Which information should the nurse offer?

• A. Osteoporosis is a progressive genetic disease with no effective treatment.
• B. Calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and exercise.
• C. Estrogen replacement therapy should be started to prevent the progression of osteoporosis.
• D. Low-dose corticosteroid treatment effectively halts the course of osteoporosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Post-menopausal females are at risk for osteoporosis due to the cessation of estrogen secretion. While genetics can play a role, osteoporosis is not solely a genetic disease. Increasing calcium intake, along with vitamin D supplementation and weight-bearing exercise, can help prevent further bone loss by slowing down calcium loss from bones. Estrogen replacement therapy is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment for osteoporosis due to associated risks. Corticosteroid treatment is not typically used as a primary treatment for osteoporosis.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who develops marked edema and a low urine output as a result of heart failure. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

• A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
• D. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In heart failure with marked edema and low urine output, the nurse can expect the provider to order Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts quickly to remove excess fluid from the body, making it an appropriate choice for this patient's condition. Digoxin is used to improve heart function but does not directly address fluid overload. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that is not as potent as Furosemide in managing acute fluid retention. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is typically used in heart failure for its aldosterone-blocking effects and not for immediate fluid removal.

4. A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for bladder cancer?

• A. A 25-year-old female with a history of sexually transmitted diseases
• B. A 42-year-old male who has worked in a lumber yard for 10 years
• C. A 55-year-old female who has had numerous episodes of bacterial cystitis
• D. An 86-year-old male with a 50–pack-year cigarette smoking history

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is a long history of tobacco use, which is reflected in an 86-year-old male with a 50–pack-year cigarette smoking history. Smoking is a well-established risk factor for developing bladder cancer. Choices A, B, and C are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. While sexually transmitted diseases, certain occupational exposures, and recurrent urinary tract infections may pose other health risks, they are not specifically associated with an elevated risk of bladder cancer.

5. The healthcare provider assesses a client with cirrhosis and finds 4+ pitting edema of the feet and legs, and massive ascites. Which mechanism contributes to edema and ascites in clients with cirrhosis?

• A. Hyperaldosteronism causing increased sodium transport ion in renal tubules
• B. Decreased portacaval pressure with greater collateral circulation
• C. Decreased renin-angiotensin response related to increased renal blood flow
• D. Hypoalbuminemia that results in decreased colloidal oncotic pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, hypoalbuminemia leads to decreased colloidal oncotic pressure. This reduction in oncotic pressure contributes to the development of edema in the feet and legs (pitting edema) and ascites in the abdomen. Hyperaldosteronism (choice A) would lead to sodium retention but is not the primary mechanism behind edema and ascites in cirrhosis. Decreased portacaval pressure with greater collateral circulation (choice B) is not directly related to the pathophysiology of edema and ascites in cirrhosis. Decreased renin-angiotensin response related to increased renal blood flow (choice C) does not play a significant role in the development of edema and ascites in cirrhosis compared to the impact of hypoalbuminemia on colloidal oncotic pressure.

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