a client receives a prescription for 1 liter of lactated ringers intravenously to be infused over 6 hours how many mlhr should the nurse program the i
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Exam

1. A client receives a prescription for 1 liter of lactated Ringer's intravenously to be infused over 6 hours. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is needed, round to the nearest whole number.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct infusion rate is 167 mL/hr. This is calculated by dividing the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time (6 hours), resulting in 166.67 mL/hr, which should be rounded to the nearest whole number as 167 mL/hr. This calculation ensures a steady infusion rate over the specified time frame. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the volume and time provided in the prescription.

2. A healthcare professional has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional take during this procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time. During a 24-hour urine collection, the first voided urine is discarded to ensure the test starts with an empty bladder. The specimen should be kept chilled, not at room temperature, to prevent bacterial growth. The last voided specimen is not discarded because it contributes to the total volume collected, so choice C is incorrect. Discarding the specimen and noting the start time is essential for accurate results in a timed quantitative determination like a 24-hour urine collection.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient who has been receiving the antibiotic for 2 days after a culture was obtained. The nurse notes increased erythema and swelling, and the patient has a persistent high fever of 39°C. What is the nurse’s next action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is observing signs of a possible lack of response to the current antibiotic therapy, such as increased erythema, swelling, and persistent high fever. The next appropriate action for the nurse is to review the sensitivity results from the patient’s culture. This step is crucial to determine if the current antibiotic is effective against the causative organism. If the sensitivity results indicate resistance to the current antibiotic, the antibiotic should be discontinued, and the provider should be notified for a change in therapy. Contacting the provider to request another culture is not the immediate priority, as the existing culture results need to be reviewed first. Adding a second antibiotic should only be considered after confirming the sensitivity results, as unnecessary antibiotic use can lead to antimicrobial resistance.

4. A client who experienced partial-thickness burns involving over 50% body surface area (BSA) 2 weeks ago has several open wounds and develops watery diarrhea. The client's blood pressure is 82/40 mmHg, and temperature is 96°F (36.6°C). Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of sepsis, such as hypotension, hypothermia, and a recent history of partial-thickness burns with open wounds. The development of watery diarrhea further raises suspicion for sepsis. With a blood pressure of 82/40 mmHg and a low temperature of 96°F (36.6°C), the nurse should recognize the potential for septic shock. Notifying the rapid response team is crucial in this situation as the client requires immediate intervention and management to prevent deterioration and address the underlying septic process. Increasing the room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as the low body temperature is likely due to systemic vasodilation and not environmental factors. While assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is important, the client's hypotension and hypothermia take precedence. Continuing to monitor vital signs (Choice C) alone is insufficient given the critical condition of the client and the need for prompt action to address the sepsis and potential septic shock.

5. A nurse is assessing the status of a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse concludes that the client is exhibiting adequate diabetic control if the serum level of glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) is less than:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 7%. Glycosylated hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) level of 7.0% or less is considered indicative of adequate diabetic control. This level reflects good long-term blood sugar management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an HbA1C level above 7% indicates poor diabetic control and an increased risk of complications associated with diabetes, such as cardiovascular disease, neuropathy, and retinopathy.

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