HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- C. Assess the client for signs of infection.
- D. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit.' When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin, the nurse's priority action is to monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring these lab values helps evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin in treating anemia. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (choice B) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client for signs of infection (choice C) is important but not the priority related to the prescription of erythropoietin. Monitoring the client for signs of bleeding (choice D) is relevant but not the priority action when erythropoietin is prescribed.
3. Discharge instructions for a client taking alprazolam (Xanax) should include which of the following?
- A. Sedative hypnotics are effective analgesics
- B. Sudden cessation of alprazolam (Xanax) can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares
- C. Caffeine beverages can increase the effect of sedative hypnotics
- D. Avoidance of excessive exercise and high temperature is recommended
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alprazolam should not be stopped abruptly as it can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares; gradual tapering is necessary. Choice A is incorrect as sedative hypnotics are not primarily used as analgesics. Choice C is incorrect as caffeine can decrease the effects of sedative hypnotics rather than increase them. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to avoid excessive exercise or high temperature related to alprazolam use.
4. After a client has an enteral feeding tube inserted, the most accurate method for verification of placement is
- A. Abdominal x-ray
- B. Auscultation
- C. Flushing tube with saline
- D. Aspiration for gastric contents
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After the insertion of an enteral feeding tube, the most accurate method for verifying its placement is by aspirating gastric contents. This method ensures that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach. Abdominal x-ray can provide additional confirmation but is not as immediate or practical. Auscultation and flushing the tube with saline are not as reliable as aspirating gastric contents for verifying proper placement of an enteral feeding tube.
5. What percentage of the offspring of the parents is predicted to have a cleft chin?
- A. 25%
- B. 50%
- C. 0%
- D. 75%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When one parent carries the recessive gene for a cleft chin and the other does not, there is a 25% chance of the offspring inheriting the cleft chin. This is due to the fact that the trait follows a simple Mendelian inheritance pattern, where the offspring would need to inherit the recessive gene from both parents to express the trait. Therefore, 25% of the offspring are predicted to have a cleft chin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the likelihood of inheriting a cleft chin in this specific scenario is 25%, not 50%, 0%, or 75%.