Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.

2. A nurse reviews a client’s urinalysis report. Which finding does the nurse recognize as abnormal?

• A. pH of 6.0
• B. An absence of protein
• C. The presence of ketones
• D. Specific gravity of 1.018

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The presence of ketones in the urine is abnormal. Ketones in the urine may indicate a state of ketosis, which is commonly seen in uncontrolled diabetes, fasting, or a low-carbohydrate diet. A normal pH range of urine is 4.5 to 7.8, making a pH of 6.0 within the normal range. An absence of protein is a normal finding in urine, as proteinuria (presence of protein) is abnormal. A specific gravity of 1.018 falls within the normal range of 1.016 to 1.022. Therefore, the presence of ketones is the abnormal finding in this scenario.

3. When performing a health history on a patient who is to begin receiving a thiazide diuretic to treat heart failure, the nurse will be concerned about a history of which condition?

• A. Asthma
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Gout
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thiazide diuretics block uric acid secretion, leading to elevated levels that can contribute to gout. Therefore, patients with a history of gout should take thiazide diuretics with caution. Asthma (Choice A), Glaucoma (Choice B), and Hypertension (Choice D) are not directly contraindicated with thiazide diuretics, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.

4. The patient is receiving a high dose of tetracycline (Sumycin). Which laboratory values should the nurse monitor while caring for this patient?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
• B. Complete blood counts
• C. Electrolytes
• D. Liver enzyme levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: High doses of tetracyclines can lead to nephrotoxicity, especially when given along with other nephrotoxic drugs. Renal function tests, such as monitoring blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels, should be performed to assess for nephrotoxicity. Monitoring complete blood counts (choice B) is not directly related to tetracycline therapy. Checking electrolytes (choice C) is important but not the priority when monitoring for tetracycline-induced nephrotoxicity. Monitoring liver enzyme levels (choice D) is not typically indicated in the context of tetracycline therapy.

5. What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?

• A. Helicobacter pylori infection
• B. NSAID use
• C. Excessive alcohol consumption
• D. Stress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori infection is the most common cause of peptic ulcers. This bacterium can weaken the protective mucous coating of the stomach and duodenum, allowing acid to get through to the sensitive lining beneath. NSAID use (Choice B) can also cause peptic ulcers by disrupting the stomach's mucosal barrier. Excessive alcohol consumption (Choice C) and stress (Choice D) can exacerbate and contribute to ulcer formation but are not the primary cause.

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