a client is taking phenytoin dilantin for seizure control and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn which of the following indicates a therapeutic
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pharmacology HESI

1. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

2. A client is receiving vancomycin (Vancocin). Which of the following is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when a client is receiving vancomycin is to monitor for signs of nephrotoxicity. Vancomycin can cause kidney damage, so monitoring kidney function and signs of nephrotoxicity are crucial to prevent harm. While monitoring for ototoxicity and ensuring adequate hydration are important nursing actions, they are not as critical as preventing nephrotoxicity when administering vancomycin.

3. The client has a new prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan). On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoclopramide, also known as Reglan, is commonly used to manage vomiting following cancer chemotherapy. It acts as a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic, aiding in relieving nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Metoclopramide should be avoided in conditions like intestinal obstruction, peptic ulcer with melena, and diverticulitis with perforation due to its prokinetic properties that can worsen these conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy.

4. The healthcare provider is applying a topical corticosteroid to a client with eczema. The healthcare provider should monitor for the potential of increased systemic absorption of the medication if the medication were being applied to which of the following body areas?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The axilla has thinner skin, making it more permeable to topical medications. Areas with thinner skin, like the axilla, allow for higher systemic absorption of topical corticosteroids.

5. A client is receiving morphine sulfate for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine sulfate that can lead to respiratory compromise and requires immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not immediately life-threatening compared to respiratory depression. Monitoring and addressing a low respiratory rate are crucial in preventing further respiratory distress or failure.

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