a client is taking phenytoin dilantin for seizure control and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn which of the following indicates a therapeutic
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pharmacology HESI

1. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

2. Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering Isotretinoin, it is important to check the client's triglyceride levels. Isotretinoin is known to elevate triglyceride levels, hence monitoring them before and periodically during treatment is essential to prevent potential adverse effects.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to report a pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute, as it could indicate digoxin toxicity. Consuming potassium-rich foods is encouraged due to the potential for furosemide (Lasix) to cause hypokalemia. The medications should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Weighing oneself daily is important to monitor for fluid retention, a crucial aspect in managing heart failure. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific teaching point related to digoxin and its potential toxicity.

4. A client receives a prescription for methocarbamol (Robaxin), and the nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding the medication. Which client statement would indicate a need for further instructions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because blurred vision is an adverse effect of methocarbamol (Robaxin) and should be reported to a healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements. Option A informs the client about a possible discoloration of urine, which is a known side effect. Option B correctly explains the purpose of the medication. Option D correctly advises the client to contact their doctor if they experience nasal congestion, which could indicate an adverse reaction.

5. The burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to the site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates that a systemic effect has occurred?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperventilation is an indication of a systemic effect of mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) due to its potential to cause acidosis by suppressing renal excretion of acid. If hyperventilation occurs, the medication should be discontinued to prevent further complications.

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