Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

• A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
• B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
• C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
• D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

2. Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a client with osteoporosis. The client taking this medication is instructed to:

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast.
• C. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alendronate (Fosamax) should be taken with a full glass of water after rising in the morning to prevent gastrointestinal side effects and increase absorption. Taking the medication with a full glass of water and in an upright position after waking up helps decrease the risk of esophageal irritation and enhances the drug's effectiveness by ensuring proper absorption in the gastrointestinal tract.

3. When a client taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) is prescribed ciprofloxacin (Cipro), the nurse should closely monitor the client for which potential effect of this drug interaction?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased warfarin effectiveness
• C. Increased risk of thrombosis
• D. Decreased ciprofloxacin effectiveness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is given with warfarin sodium (Coumadin), it can potentiate the effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's INR levels and watch for signs of bleeding such as bruising, petechiae, or black tarry stools.

4. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

• A. Prednisone
• B. Sulfisoxazole
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

5. The healthcare provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a partial-thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatment?

• A. The medication is an antibacterial.
• B. The medication will help heal the burn.
• C. The medication will permanently stain my skin.
• D. The medication should be applied directly to the wound.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Silver sulfadiazine is an antibacterial used to treat burns, helping in the healing process. It does not permanently stain the skin. Therefore, the statement indicating a lack of understanding is that the medication will permanently stain the skin.

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