Nursing Elites

1. The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Chest pain
• D. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Vincristine is known to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, resulting in numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Diarrhea, hair loss, and chest pain are not typically associated with vincristine use.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed glipizide (Glucotrol). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication before a meal.
• B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
• C. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed glipizide (Glucotrol) is to monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. Glipizide stimulates insulin release from the pancreas, which can lead to hypoglycemia. It is usually taken before a meal, not necessarily on an empty stomach. Alcohol consumption should be avoided to prevent interactions with the medication. Taking the medication before bedtime is not the typical recommendation.

3. A client is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid) for hypothyroidism. Which symptom would indicate to the nurse that the client is taking too much medication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Lethargy
• C. Tremors
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is taking an excessive dose of levothyroxine (Synthroid), it can lead to symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Tremors are a common sign of excessive medication, along with tachycardia and insomnia. Bradycardia, lethargy, and constipation are typical symptoms of hypothyroidism, indicating that the client may require a higher dose of levothyroxine rather than too much.

4. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

5. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psychomotor seizures. The nurse reviews the client's health history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated if which of the following disorders is present?

• A. Headaches
• B. Liver disease
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is contraindicated in liver disease due to its potential to cause hepatic toxicity. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is necessary when using this medication to detect any signs of liver damage.

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