a client with severe acne is seen in the clinic and the health care provider hcp prescribes isotretinoin the nurse reviews the clients medication reco
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam

1. A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic, and the healthcare provider prescribes isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would contact the healthcare provider if the client is taking which medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isotretinoin is a metabolite of vitamin A, which can lead to toxicity when taken together. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid concurrent use of vitamin A supplements with isotretinoin. Contacting the healthcare provider to discuss discontinuing vitamin A supplements is important to prevent potential adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not known to interact significantly with isotretinoin.

2. A client is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The development of audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm, associated with propranolol. Beta-blockers can trigger bronchospasm, especially in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. This complication can lead to significant respiratory distress and should be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.

3. The client with small cell lung cancer is being treated with etoposide (VePesid). The nurse assisting in caring for the client during its administration understands that which side effect is specifically associated with this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Orthostatic hypotension.' Etoposide is associated with orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur when transitioning from lying down to standing up. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's blood pressure during the infusion to detect and manage this potential side effect.

4. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

5. A client with chronic pain is prescribed transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patches. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients using transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patches should avoid using heating pads over the patch as heat can increase the release of the medication, potentially leading to overdose. The patch should be applied to a different site each time, changed every 72 hours, and the old patch should be removed before applying a new one to prevent accidental overdose or excessive drug absorption.

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