Nursing Elites

1. When a client is suspected of having a stroke, what is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPA).
• B. Perform a neurological assessment.
• C. Position the client in a supine position.
• D. Check the client's blood glucose level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform a neurological assessment. When a stroke is suspected, the priority action is to assess the client neurologically to determine the extent of brain injury and identify any immediate risks, such as impaired airway, speech deficits, or loss of motor function. This assessment helps in early recognition of signs that are essential for timely intervention and guides further treatment, such as administering tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), if appropriate. Positioning the client in a supine position or checking the blood glucose level can be important but not the priority when a stroke is suspected.

2. An older client is admitted to the intensive care unit unconscious after several days of vomiting and diarrhea. The nurse inserts a urinary catheter and observes dark amber urine output. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Begin dopamine infusion at 2 mcg/kg/minute.
• B. Begin potassium chloride 10 mEq over 1 hour.
• C. Give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1000 mL over 30 minutes.
• D. Administer promethazine 25 mg IV push.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention is to give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1000 mL over 30 minutes. The client's dark amber urine output indicates dehydration and hypovolemia, requiring rapid fluid resuscitation. Dopamine infusion, potassium chloride, and promethazine are not the initial interventions needed for a client with hypovolemic symptoms.

3. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication with meals. Which rationale should the nurse provide for taking the medication with food?

• A. It enhances the effectiveness of the medication
• B. It helps to improve absorption
• C. It prevents orthostatic hypotension
• D. It reduces gastrointestinal upset

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It reduces gastrointestinal upset.' Levodopa/carbidopa can cause nausea and other gastrointestinal side effects. Taking the medication with food can help reduce these side effects and improve the client's comfort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication with food does not primarily enhance effectiveness, improve absorption, or prevent orthostatic hypotension. The main reason for advising to take the medication with meals is to minimize gastrointestinal upset.

4. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

• A. Have him drink several glasses of water
• B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
• C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
• D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.

5. After a spider bite on the lower extremity, a client is admitted to treat an infection that is spreading up the leg. Which admission assessment findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Swollen lymph nodes in the groin
• B. Core body temperature of 100.5°F
• C. All of the above
• D. Elevated white blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: All of the above findings should be reported to the healthcare provider for prompt evaluation and treatment. Swollen lymph nodes in the groin indicate regional lymphatic involvement, a core body temperature of 100.5°F suggests a mild fever response, and an elevated white blood cell count indicates an ongoing infection process. These findings collectively point towards the spread of infection and require immediate attention to prevent further complications.

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