Nursing Elites

1. A client reports dizziness when standing up quickly. What advice should the nurse give?

• A. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
• B. Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.
• C. Report the symptom to the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Limit physical activity to avoid triggering dizziness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct advice for a client experiencing dizziness when standing up quickly is to change positions slowly to prevent dizziness. This symptom is suggestive of postural hypotension, where a sudden change in position can lead to a drop in blood pressure, causing dizziness. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids (Choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not directly related to the prevention of dizziness in this case. Reporting the symptom to the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is important if the dizziness is persistent or severe, but the immediate action to prevent it is to change positions slowly. Limiting physical activity (Choice D) may not necessarily address the underlying cause of dizziness in this context.

2. A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
• B. Continue the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Monitor the client's vital signs and assess abdominal pain.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of morphine sulfate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.

3. After placing a stethoscope to auscultate S1 and S2 heart sounds, what should the nurse do to check for an S3 heart sound?

• A. Switch to the diaphragm of the stethoscope to hear any abnormal sounds
• B. Listen with the bell of the stethoscope at the same location
• C. Listen at a different location over the aortic area
• D. Switch to the apical area and reassess for S3 sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess for an S3 heart sound, the nurse should listen with the bell of the stethoscope. An S3 heart sound is often low-pitched and best heard with the bell. Choice A is incorrect because switching to the diaphragm is not ideal for detecting low-pitched sounds like an S3. Choice C is incorrect as the S3 heart sound is best heard over the apex of the heart, not the aortic area. Choice D is incorrect because moving to the apical area is appropriate, but the nurse should specifically use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for S3 sounds.

4. When assessing a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder who reports taking a handful of medications, what information is most important to obtain?

• A. What drugs the client used in the suicide attempt.
• B. When the client last took medications for bipolar disorder.
• C. Whether the client has attempted suicide before.
• D. Which family member has the suicide note.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain information on what drugs the client used in the suicide attempt. This information is crucial for assessing the severity of the overdose, potential drug interactions, and determining the appropriate treatment plan. Choice B is not as urgent as identifying the drugs taken during the suicide attempt. Choice C, while important, is not as immediately critical as knowing the specific medications involved. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate medical needs of the client.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing
• C. Barrel chest appearance
• D. A pulse oximetry reading of 88%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute and the use of accessory muscles for breathing are concerning in COPD, they do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Similarly, a barrel chest appearance is a common finding in COPD and does not require urgent intervention compared to the critical need to address hypoxemia.

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