Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with worsening dyspnea. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
• B. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• C. Assess the client's lung sounds.
• D. Reposition the client to relieve dyspnea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing worsening dyspnea, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. This helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Administering a diuretic (Choice B) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation comes first. While assessing lung sounds (Choice C) is important, it is not the immediate priority when the client is in respiratory distress. Repositioning the client (Choice D) may help with comfort but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation.

2. To prevent unnecessary hypoxia during suctioning of a tracheostomy, what must the nurse do?

• A. Apply suction for no more than 10 seconds
• B. Maintain sterile technique
• C. Lubricate 3 to 4 inches of the catheter tip
• D. Withdraw catheter in a circular motion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply suction for no more than 10 seconds. Prolonged suctioning can lead to hypoxia, so it is essential to limit the suctioning time. Maintaining sterile technique (choice B) is important to prevent infections but is not directly related to preventing hypoxia during suctioning. Lubricating the catheter tip (choice C) helps with insertion but does not specifically address hypoxia prevention. Withdrawing the catheter in a circular motion (choice D) is not a standard practice during tracheostomy suctioning and does not help prevent hypoxia.

3. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. What assessment finding indicates the need for further intervention?

• A. The client reports feeling short of breath.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client's respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute.
• D. The client is unable to complete sentences without pausing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the inability to complete sentences without pausing indicates respiratory distress and the need for immediate intervention. This finding suggests an increased work of breathing and inadequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as choice D. Feeling short of breath (choice A) is expected in pneumonia but does not necessarily indicate the need for immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 92% (choice B) is slightly below the normal range but may not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute (choice C) is within the normal range and does not signify an urgent need for intervention.

4. What assessment is most important for the nurse to perform for a client with dehydration receiving IV fluids?

• A. Monitor the client’s electrolyte levels.
• B. Check the client’s urine output hourly.
• C. Assess the client’s skin turgor regularly.
• D. Monitor the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client’s electrolyte levels. When a client is receiving IV fluids for dehydration, it is crucial to assess their electrolyte levels regularly. Dehydration can lead to imbalances in electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium, which are essential for maintaining fluid balance and proper organ function. Checking urine output (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels. Assessing skin turgor (Choice C) is an indirect method of assessing dehydration but does not provide specific information about electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the most critical assessment in this scenario as electrolyte imbalances can have a more direct impact on the client's condition.

5. The nurse is caring for a 24-month-old toddler who has sensory sensitivity, difficulty engaging in social interactions, and has not yet spoken two-word phrases. Which assessment should the nurse administer?

• A. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test
• B. The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT)
• C. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence
• D. Denver Developmental Screening Test

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT) is specifically designed to screen for autism spectrum disorders in young children. It is appropriate for this child, given the signs of social and communication delays. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (Choice A) assesses receptive vocabulary and may not capture the social and communication aspects seen in autism. The Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (Choice C) measures cognitive ability and may not address the social and communication delays. The Denver Developmental Screening Test (Choice D) is a broad developmental assessment tool, but the M-CHAT is more specific to screening for autism in this case.

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