HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. A client is scheduled for an arteriogram. The nurse should explain to the client that the arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by:
- A. Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation.
- B. Scanning the affected extremity and identifying the areas of volume changes.
- C. Using ultrasound to estimate the velocity changes in the blood vessels.
- D. Determining how long the client can walk.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation. An arteriogram is a diagnostic procedure that involves injecting a contrast agent to visualize the blood vessels and identify the location of any obstructions. This helps confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by showing where the blockage is located and how collateral circulation is compensating for the reduced blood flow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because scanning the extremity, estimating velocity changes with ultrasound, or determining walking distance are not the primary purposes of an arteriogram in diagnosing occlusive arterial disease.
2. A client has just returned to the nursing unit after bronchoscopy. To which intervention should the nurse give priority?
- A. Assessing the client for the return of the gag reflex
- B. Administering pain medication
- C. Encouraging copious fluid intake
- D. Ambulating the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After bronchoscopy, the priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client for the return of the gag reflex. This assessment is crucial to ensure the client's safety and prevent aspiration. Keeping the client on nothing-by-mouth status until the gag reflex returns is essential. Administering pain medication, encouraging fluid intake, and ambulating the client are important interventions but assessing the gag reflex takes precedence due to the risk of aspiration post-bronchoscopy.
3. Which of the following indicates a potential complication of diabetes mellitus?
- A. Inflamed and painful joints.
- B. Blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg.
- C. Stooped posture.
- D. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dL (90 g/L).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg indicates hypertension, which is a common complication of diabetes mellitus due to atherosclerotic changes. Hypertension is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular diseases, which are prevalent in individuals with diabetes. Inflamed and painful joints (Choice A) are not directly related to diabetes complications but may be seen in conditions like arthritis. Stooped posture (Choice C) is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues like osteoporosis, not necessarily a typical complication of diabetes. Hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL (90 g/L) (Choice D) could signify anemia, which can occur in diabetes but is not a primary complication often associated with the disease.
4. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is taught to take isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) at 5 PM each day. The client should be instructed that the greatest risk of hypoglycemia will occur at about what time?
- A. 11 AM, shortly before lunch.
- B. 1 PM, shortly after lunch.
- C. 6 PM, shortly after dinner.
- D. 1 AM, while sleeping.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 1 AM, while sleeping. Isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) peaks around 6-8 hours after administration, which increases the risk of hypoglycemia during the night. Choice A, 11 AM, shortly before lunch, is incorrect because the peak effect of NPH insulin occurs much later. Choice B, 1 PM, shortly after lunch, is incorrect as it is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice C, 6 PM, shortly after dinner, is also incorrect because the peak risk of hypoglycemia with NPH insulin occurs later in the night.
5. A healthcare professional is reading the chest x-ray report of a client who has just been intubated. The report states that the tip of the endotracheal tube lies 1 cm above the carina. The healthcare professional interprets that the tube is positioned above:
- A. The first tracheal cartilaginous ring
- B. The point where the larynx connects to the trachea
- C. The bifurcation of the right and left main stem bronchi
- D. The area connecting the oropharynx to the laryngopharynx
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The carina is a cartilaginous ridge that separates the openings of the two main stem (right and left) bronchi. If an endotracheal tube is inserted past the carina, the tube will enter the right main stem bronchus due to the natural curvature of the airway. This positioning is dangerous as only the right lung will be ventilated. It can be identified as only the right lung will have breath sounds and rise and fall with ventilation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the specific anatomical landmark mentioned in the scenario.
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