Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of these instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. You should avoid eating or drinking anything after midnight the day before the test.
• B. You may have a light breakfast the morning of the test.
• C. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.
• D. You will need to avoid taking any medications the day before the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.' Before a colonoscopy, it is essential to cleanse the colon thoroughly by drinking a bowel preparation solution. This helps to ensure that the colon is clear for the procedure, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding eating or drinking after midnight, having a light breakfast, and avoiding medications are not specific instructions related to the colonoscopy preparation process.

2. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?

• A. 3 oz. broiled fish, 1 baked potato, 1/2 cup canned beets, 1 orange, and milk
• B. 3 oz. canned salmon, fresh broccoli, 1 biscuit, tea, and 1 apple
• C. A bologna sandwich, fresh eggplant, 2 oz fresh fruit, tea, and apple juice
• D. 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A meal of turkey, sweet potato, green beans, milk, and an orange is low in sodium and suitable for a post-MI diet. Choice A includes a baked potato and canned beets, which are higher in sodium. Choice B includes canned salmon, which can be high in sodium. Choice C includes a bologna sandwich, which is also high in sodium compared to the other options.

3. The nurse is caring for a client in hypertensive crisis in an intensive care unit. The priority assessment in the first hour of care is

• A. Heart rate
• B. Pedal pulses
• C. Lung sounds
• D. Pupil responses

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing pupil responses is crucial in a client with hypertensive crisis to monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure, which can indicate potential neurological complications. While heart rate, pedal pulses, and lung sounds are important assessments, they do not take precedence over neurological assessments in this critical situation.

4. When a client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer, which of the following should take priority in planning care?

• A. Esophagitis
• B. Leukopenia
• C. Fatigue
• D. Skin irritation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leukopenia should take priority in planning care for a client receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for bronchial cancer because it is a serious side effect that increases the risk of infection. Monitoring leukopenia is crucial to prevent complications. Esophagitis, fatigue, and skin irritation are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, but leukopenia poses a higher risk of life-threatening infections, requiring immediate attention.

5. The client is being taught to select foods rich in potassium to help prevent digitalis toxicity. Which choice indicates the client understands dietary needs?

• A. Three apricots
• B. Medium banana
• C. Naval orange
• D. Baked potato

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A baked potato is high in potassium and helps prevent digitalis toxicity by maintaining adequate potassium levels. While choices A, B, and C all contain some potassium, a baked potato is a more concentrated source of potassium compared to three apricots, a medium banana, or a naval orange. Therefore, the client should choose a baked potato to better meet the dietary needs for preventing digitalis toxicity.

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