Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of these instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. You should avoid eating or drinking anything after midnight the day before the test.
• B. You may have a light breakfast the morning of the test.
• C. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.
• D. You will need to avoid taking any medications the day before the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.' Before a colonoscopy, it is essential to cleanse the colon thoroughly by drinking a bowel preparation solution. This helps to ensure that the colon is clear for the procedure, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding eating or drinking after midnight, having a light breakfast, and avoiding medications are not specific instructions related to the colonoscopy preparation process.

2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes
• B. Skeletal muscle weakness
• C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
• D. Tingling of the lips

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, tingling of the lips (perioral tingling). This is a common symptom of hypocalcemia due to increased neuromuscular excitability. Choice A, decreased deep-tendon reflexes, is more indicative of hypercalcemia. Choice B, skeletal muscle weakness, is associated with hypokalemia. Choice C, hypoactive bowel sounds, is not a typical finding in hypocalcemia.

3. When introducing solid foods to an infant, what food should be recommended to be introduced first?

• A. Strained fruits
• B. Pureed meats
• C. Cooked egg whites
• D. Iron-fortified cereal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When introducing solid foods to infants, iron-fortified cereal is usually recommended as the first food due to its high nutritional value and the importance of iron for the baby's development. Strained fruits (choice A) are often introduced later due to their higher sugar content. Pureed meats (choice B) and cooked egg whites (choice C) are usually introduced after iron-fortified cereal to provide additional sources of protein and other nutrients.

4. A healthcare professional assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?

• A. Flaccid paralysis
• B. Pupils fixed and dilated
• C. Diminished spinal reflexes
• D. Reduced sensory responses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pupils fixed and dilated. Fixed and dilated pupils are a critical neurological sign that indicates severe neurological damage or brain herniation, posing a significant concern for the patient's condition. Flaccid paralysis (choice A) typically indicates lower motor neuron injury, while diminished spinal reflexes (choice C) and reduced sensory responses (choice D) may suggest various neurological issues but are not as acutely concerning as fixed and dilated pupils in this scenario.

5. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?

• A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk
• B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
• C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea
• D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.

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