HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam
1. A healthcare professional is assisting with the development of an education program about nutritional risk among adolescents to a group of parents of adolescents. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply).
- A. Skipping more than three meals per week
- B. Eating fast food once a week
- C. Hearty appetite
- D. Drink whole milk to ensure adequate calcium intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Skipping more than three meals per week is an indicator of poor nutritional habits in adolescents. This can lead to inadequate nutrient intake and negatively impact growth and development. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with poor nutritional habits among adolescents. Eating fast food once a week may not necessarily indicate poor nutrition if the overall diet is balanced. Having a hearty appetite does not provide specific information about nutritional risk, as appetite can vary among individuals. While whole milk can be a source of calcium, it is not necessary to drink whole milk specifically to ensure adequate calcium intake, as there are other sources of calcium available.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery. Which of these findings requires the most immediate attention?
- A. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
- C. Temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit
- D. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit is slightly elevated but not immediately critical. In a postoperative patient, an elevated temperature could indicate an infection, which requires prompt attention to prevent complications. The respiratory rate, blood pressure, and heart rate within normal ranges are important to monitor but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as an elevated temperature does.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea. Which of these actions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy
- B. Encourage the client to perform deep breathing exercises
- C. Raise the head of the bed
- D. Check the client's oxygen saturation level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's oxygen saturation level first. This action is crucial in assessing the severity of dyspnea and determining the necessity for oxygen therapy. Administering oxygen therapy without knowing the current oxygen saturation level can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Encouraging deep breathing exercises and raising the head of the bed are important interventions, but assessing the oxygen saturation level takes precedence in managing dyspnea in a client with COPD.
4. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?
- A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
- B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
- C. A client who had 3 incontinent diarrhea stools
- D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.
5. The health care provider order reads 'aspirate nasogastric feeding (NG) tube every 4 hours and check pH of aspirate.' The pH of the aspirate is 10. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Hold the tube feeding and notify the provider
- B. Administer the tube feeding as scheduled
- C. Irrigate the tube with diet cola soda
- D. Apply intermittent suction to the feeding tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A pH of 10 indicates improper placement of the NG tube, requiring notification of the provider and holding the feeding. Choice B is incorrect because administering the tube feeding could lead to complications due to the improper placement. Choice C is incorrect as irrigating the tube with diet cola soda is not a standard practice for addressing this issue. Choice D is incorrect as applying intermittent suction does not address the problem of improper placement indicated by the high pH level.
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