Nursing Elites

1. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section, the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Cancel the surgery
• B. Inform the anesthesia care provider
• C. Ask the client if she has had any other liquids
• D. Proceed with routine preparations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drinking liquids before surgery can increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Therefore, the anesthesia care provider must be informed immediately to determine how to proceed, as this could delay or alter the surgical plan. Canceling the surgery without consulting the anesthesia care provider would be premature and could potentially lead to unnecessary actions. Asking the client if she has had any other liquids is important but not the first priority. Proceeding with routine preparations without addressing the potential issue of ingesting liquids before surgery could compromise the client's safety.

2. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instruction should the nurse provide the UAP who is working with the nurse?

• A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake
• B. Document the absence of reaction
• C. Notify the nurse if the client develops a fever
• D. Continue to measure the client's vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring vital signs throughout a transfusion is critical, as reactions can occur later in the process. The UAP should continue to check vital signs regularly to ensure that any delayed reaction is promptly detected. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake (Choice A) is not necessary at this point, as the focus should be on monitoring. Documenting the absence of a reaction (Choice B) is important but not as crucial as ongoing vital sign monitoring. Notifying the nurse if the client develops a fever (Choice C) is relevant but should not be the UAP's primary responsibility during the transfusion.

3. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. The client's level of consciousness improves.
• B. The client's ammonia level decreases.
• C. The client has three bowel movements daily.
• D. The client's liver enzymes return to normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.

4. A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is?

• A. Difference in the intake and output
• B. Changes in the mucous membranes
• C. Skin turgor
• D. Weekly weight

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with altered renal function being treated at home, weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance. Fluid retention or loss can significantly affect weight, making it a reliable measure. Choices A, B, and C are not as accurate indicators of fluid balance as weekly weight. Intake and output differences can vary in accuracy and may not capture all aspects of fluid balance. Changes in mucous membranes and skin turgor can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less precise indicators.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is socially reclusive and pacing in the hallway. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Take the client's temperature and blood pressure.
• B. Encourage the client to rest.
• C. Plan an activity that includes physical exercise.
• D. Carefully observe the client throughout the shift.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. In this situation, the client's behavior suggests agitation and restlessness, which could potentially escalate. Observation is crucial to monitor any changes in behavior, assess for signs of distress, and ensure the client's safety. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for managing the client's behavior. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) might not be effective if the client is highly agitated. Planning an activity that includes physical exercise (Choice C) could exacerbate the situation rather than address the current behavior. Therefore, the priority is to observe the client closely to provide appropriate support and intervention as needed.

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