HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section, the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Cancel the surgery
- B. Inform the anesthesia care provider
- C. Ask the client if she has had any other liquids
- D. Proceed with routine preparations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Drinking liquids before surgery can increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Therefore, the anesthesia care provider must be informed immediately to determine how to proceed, as this could delay or alter the surgical plan. Canceling the surgery without consulting the anesthesia care provider would be premature and could potentially lead to unnecessary actions. Asking the client if she has had any other liquids is important but not the first priority. Proceeding with routine preparations without addressing the potential issue of ingesting liquids before surgery could compromise the client's safety.
2. The nurse is responsible for several elderly clients, including a client on bed rest with a skin tear and hematoma from a fall 2 days ago. What is the best care assignment for this client?
- A. Assign an RN to supervise a nursing assistant for skin care
- B. Assign a nursing assistant to help the client with self-care activities
- C. Delegate complete care to an unlicensed assistive personnel
- D. Supervise a nursing assistant for skin care
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the best care assignment for the client with a skin tear and hematoma is to supervise a nursing assistant for skin care. This ensures proper wound care while utilizing the skills of the nursing assistant effectively. Assigning an RN to supervise the nursing assistant is appropriate as it provides the necessary expertise for wound care supervision. Delegating complete care to an unlicensed assistive personnel may not be suitable for a client with specific wound care needs. Helping the client with self-care activities may not directly address the urgent need for proper wound care in this situation.
3. A client is receiving IV antibiotic therapy for sepsis. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. Urine output increases to 25 mL/hour
- B. Client reports feeling less fatigued
- C. Heart rate decreases from 120 to 110 beats per minute
- D. White blood cell count decreases from 15,000 to 9,000/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment, making this the most objective indicator of improvement in a client with sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are subjective indicators and may not always directly correlate with the resolution of the underlying infection. While an increase in urine output, a client reporting feeling less fatigued, and a decrease in heart rate are positive signs, they are not as specific or directly related to the resolution of the infection as a decrease in white blood cell count.
4. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor the client for bradycardia.
- B. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of hyperglycemia.
- D. Monitor for signs of fluid retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed home oxygen therapy. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Ensure that the client uses oxygen continuously at night.
- B. Instruct the client to avoid smoking and exposure to smoke.
- C. Teach the client how to clean and replace the oxygen tubing.
- D. Instruct the client to increase their fluid intake.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client with COPD prescribed home oxygen therapy is to educate them on how to clean and replace the oxygen tubing. This is crucial to prevent infections and ensure the effectiveness of the oxygen delivery system. Option A is not necessary as oxygen therapy is usually prescribed as needed, not continuously at night. While smoking cessation and avoiding smoke exposure are important in COPD management, it is not directly related to home oxygen therapy. Increasing fluid intake is beneficial for some conditions but is not specifically related to home oxygen therapy for COPD.
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