Nursing Elites

1. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section, the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Cancel the surgery
• B. Inform the anesthesia care provider
• C. Ask the client if she has had any other liquids
• D. Proceed with routine preparations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drinking liquids before surgery can increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Therefore, the anesthesia care provider must be informed immediately to determine how to proceed, as this could delay or alter the surgical plan. Canceling the surgery without consulting the anesthesia care provider would be premature and could potentially lead to unnecessary actions. Asking the client if she has had any other liquids is important but not the first priority. Proceeding with routine preparations without addressing the potential issue of ingesting liquids before surgery could compromise the client's safety.

2. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hemoglobin level
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Prothrombin time (PT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.

3. A 48-year-old client with chronic alcoholism is admitted to the hospital. The nurse would anticipate that the client may be deficient in which vitamins?

• A. Vitamin B and vitamin C
• B. Vitamin D and vitamin E
• C. Vitamin K and vitamin A
• D. Vitamin A and vitamin E

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chronic alcoholism commonly leads to deficiencies in B vitamins, particularly thiamine, and vitamin C. Thiamine deficiency can result in serious neurological issues like Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, while vitamin C deficiency can lead to scurvy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because vitamin D and E deficiencies are not typically associated with chronic alcoholism.

4. A 4-year-old child is returned to the room following a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Frequent swallowing
• B. Coughing
• C. Slow breathing
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy patient, frequent swallowing is a crucial assessment that requires immediate attention by the nurse. Frequent swallowing can indicate bleeding, a complication that needs urgent intervention. Coughing may be expected due to irritation from the surgery but is not as concerning as potential bleeding. Slow breathing and tachycardia are not typically immediate concerns following this type of surgery.

5. The nurse is assessing a client 2 hours postoperatively following an appendectomy. The nurse should intervene for which abnormal finding?

• A. Heart rate of 88 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 100/60
• C. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• D. Respiratory rate of 16

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% indicate hypoxia and require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 88 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60, and a respiratory rate of 16 are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation is a critical parameter reflecting the client's oxygenation status.

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