HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section, the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Cancel the surgery
- B. Inform the anesthesia care provider
- C. Ask the client if she has had any other liquids
- D. Proceed with routine preparations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Drinking liquids before surgery can increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Therefore, the anesthesia care provider must be informed immediately to determine how to proceed, as this could delay or alter the surgical plan. Canceling the surgery without consulting the anesthesia care provider would be premature and could potentially lead to unnecessary actions. Asking the client if she has had any other liquids is important but not the first priority. Proceeding with routine preparations without addressing the potential issue of ingesting liquids before surgery could compromise the client's safety.
2. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports nausea and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
- B. Check the client's vital signs and blood pressure.
- C. Decrease the infusion rate of TPN.
- D. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports symptoms like nausea and dizziness, the first action the nurse should take is to check the client's vital signs and blood pressure. This assessment helps determine the client's overall stability and can provide crucial information to guide further interventions. Checking the blood glucose level (Choice A) may be relevant but is not the priority in this situation. Decreasing the infusion rate of TPN (Choice C) may be necessary but should be based on assessment findings. Administering antiemetic medication (Choice D) should not be the initial action without first assessing the client's vital signs.
3. After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Before starting the urine collection, the nurse noted that the client's serum creatinine was 0.3 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Check the client's urine output hourly
- B. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the results
- D. Start the 24-hour urine collection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL is abnormally low, indicating potential issues with the interpretation of the creatinine clearance test. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider of this result before proceeding with the 24-hour urine collection. Checking urine output, instructing the client to increase fluid intake, or starting the urine collection without consulting the healthcare provider could lead to incorrect test results and misinterpretation of the client's renal function.
4. Which meal option should the nurse recommend for a client with renal disease who is following a low-protein diet?
- A. Grilled chicken with steamed vegetables
- B. Tofu stir-fry with rice
- C. Pasta with marinara sauce
- D. Baked salmon with quinoa
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pasta with marinara sauce. Clients with renal disease following a low-protein diet should opt for lower-protein options. Pasta with marinara sauce is a suitable choice as it is lower in protein compared to grilled chicken, tofu, or salmon. Grilled chicken, tofu, and salmon are higher in protein content and are not ideal for individuals following a low-protein diet for renal disease as they may strain the kidneys.
5. A client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding due to impaired liver function. Which laboratory result is the most important to monitor?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
- D. Serum albumin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is a critical indicator of bleeding risk in clients with liver dysfunction. Impaired liver function reduces clotting factor production, leading to an increased PT, which requires close monitoring. Monitoring BUN (Choice A) is more indicative of kidney function, not clotting ability. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (Choice C) and serum albumin (Choice D) are important indicators of liver function, but they do not directly assess the client's bleeding risk.
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