HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client is receiving IV fluid therapy for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's fluid status is improving?
- A. Urine output increases to 50 mL/hour
- B. Client reports feeling more thirsty
- C. Blood pressure decreases from 120/80 to 110/70
- D. Heart rate increases from 80 to 100 beats per minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An increase in urine output is a positive sign that the client's hydration status is improving. It indicates that the kidneys are functioning well and that fluid therapy is effective. Increased urine output helps to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Feeling more thirsty (choice B) is a sign of dehydration, not improvement. A decrease in blood pressure (choice C) and an increase in heart rate (choice D) are not typically indicative of improving fluid status during IV fluid therapy for dehydration.
2. Which of these clients, all in the terminal stage of cancer, is least appropriate to suggest the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with a pump?
- A. A young adult with a history of Down syndrome
- B. A teenager who reads at a 4th-grade level
- C. An elderly client with numerous arthritic nodules on the hands
- D. A preschooler with intermittent alertness episodes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A preschooler with intermittent alertness episodes is not a suitable candidate for patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) due to their inability to effectively manage the system. In the context of terminal cancer, it is crucial for the patient to be able to utilize the PCA system appropriately to manage pain effectively. Preschoolers may not have the cognitive ability or understanding to operate a PCA pump compared to the other clients. Choices A, B, and C present clients with conditions that do not inherently impede their ability to use a PCA pump effectively.
3. A client receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) has lost weight and exhibits increasing edema. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Evaluate the patency of the arteriovenous (AV) graft.
- B. Instruct the client to continue a fluid-restricted diet.
- C. Recommend support stockings for venous return.
- D. Monitor the client's serum albumin levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) who has lost weight and exhibits increasing edema, the nurse should prioritize evaluating the patency of the arteriovenous (AV) graft. This assessment is crucial to determine if hemodialysis can be resumed, addressing the client's presenting issues effectively. Instructing the client to continue a fluid-restricted diet (choice B) may not address the underlying issue related to the CAPD. Recommending support stockings for venous return (choice C) is not directly relevant to the situation described. Monitoring the client's serum albumin levels (choice D) may be important but does not directly address the immediate concern of weight loss and increasing edema in a CAPD client.
4. A client with pneumonia is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. Client's respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 20 breaths per minute
- B. White blood cell count decreases to normal range
- C. Client reports increased energy levels
- D. Cough becomes productive with green sputum
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment and the client's condition is improving. Monitoring the white blood cell count is a more objective indicator of the body's response to the antibiotics. Choices A, C, and D may also be positive signs, but they are less specific and may vary among individuals. Respiratory rate alone may not be sufficient to indicate improvement, as other factors can influence it. Energy levels and cough characteristics are subjective and may not always correlate with the effectiveness of antibiotic treatment.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?
- A. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime for best results.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by interfering with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, consuming foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Warfarin is not affected by foods high in potassium; C) Warfarin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects; D) There is no specific requirement for taking warfarin at bedtime for best results.
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