HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Test
1. The healthcare professional observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the healthcare professional's intervention?
- A. The cuff wraps around the girth of the leg.
- B. The UAP auscultates the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg.
- C. The client is placed in a prone position.
- D. The systolic reading is 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse is the site for auscultation when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. Auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg is incorrect as it may lead to an inaccurate reading. Placing the client in a prone position and wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg are acceptable practices. A systolic reading that is 20 mm Hg higher in the lower extremity compared to the arm is expected due to the difference in blood pressure between the upper and lower parts of the body.
2. An adult has a coagulation time of 20 minutes. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following?
- A. Blood clots
- B. Ecchymotic areas
- C. Jaundice
- D. Infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A coagulation time of 20 minutes is prolonged, suggesting a potential bleeding disorder. Ecchymotic areas, which are areas of bruising, are common signs of abnormal bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should observe the client for ecchymotic areas to monitor for potential bleeding issues. Blood clots are not typically associated with prolonged coagulation time but rather with excessive clotting. Jaundice is related to liver dysfunction, and infection is not directly linked to coagulation time.
3. The client is 5 feet from the bathroom door when he states, 'I feel faint.' Before the nurse can get the client to a chair, the client starts to fall. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Check the client's carotid pulse.
- B. Encourage the client to get to the toilet.
- C. In a loud voice, call for help.
- D. Gently lower the client to the floor.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse in this situation is to gently lower the client to the floor. This action helps prevent injury to both the client and the nurse. It is important to ensure a safe environment and protect the client from falling, as well as to maintain the nurse's own safety while providing care.
4. The healthcare provider plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the healthcare provider administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
- A. 0.2 mL
- B. 0.8 mL
- C. 1.25 mL
- D. 2.0 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula (1 mL × 4 mg) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. The healthcare provider should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam for a dosage of 4 mg IV push. Choice A is incorrect because it results from an incorrect calculation. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided dosage.
5. A client with a diagnosis of asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased oxygen saturation.
- B. Decreased respiratory rate.
- C. Absence of audible wheezing.
- D. Improved exercise tolerance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increased oxygen saturation (A) is the most direct indicator of the effectiveness of albuterol (Proventil) in improving breathing. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, showing that the albuterol is helping with air exchange in the lungs. While decreased respiratory rate (B), absence of audible wheezing (C), and improved exercise tolerance (D) are positive outcomes, they are secondary to oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation directly reflects the improvement in the client's respiratory status and the effectiveness of the medication.
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