Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the healthcare professional's intervention?

• A. The cuff wraps around the girth of the leg.
• B. The UAP auscultates the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg.
• C. The client is placed in a prone position.
• D. The systolic reading is 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse is the site for auscultation when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. Auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg is incorrect as it may lead to an inaccurate reading. Placing the client in a prone position and wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg are acceptable practices. A systolic reading that is 20 mm Hg higher in the lower extremity compared to the arm is expected due to the difference in blood pressure between the upper and lower parts of the body.

2. Prior to Mr. Landon undergoing a tracheostomy, what is the top nursing priority?

• A. Shaving the neck.
• B. Establishing a means of communication.
• C. Inserting a Foley catheter.
• D. Starting an IV.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before Mr. Landon undergoes a tracheostomy, the top nursing priority is to establish a means of communication. This is essential to ensure that Mr. Landon can effectively communicate his needs during and after the procedure. Shaving the neck (Choice A) may be necessary for the tracheostomy but is not the top priority. Inserting a Foley catheter (Choice C) and starting an IV (Choice D) are important nursing interventions but are not the priority before a tracheostomy procedure, where communication is key for patient safety and comfort.

3. What action should be implemented to prevent the formation of a sacral ulcer for an immobile client?

• A. Maintain the client in a lateral position using protective wrist and vest restraints.
• B. Position the client prone with a small pillow below the diaphragm.
• C. Raise the head and knee gatch when lying in a supine position.
• D. Transfer the client to a wheelchair close to the nursing station for observation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Positioning the client prone with a small pillow below the diaphragm helps maintain proper alignment and provides optimal pressure relief over the sacral area, reducing the risk of developing a pressure ulcer. This position redistributes pressure away from bony prominences, such as the sacrum, which is crucial in preventing ulcer formation in immobile clients. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can lead to further complications and does not address pressure relief. Choice C is incorrect as raising the head and knee gatch in a supine position does not directly alleviate pressure over the sacrum. Choice D is incorrect as transferring to a wheelchair does not address pressure relief or optimal positioning to prevent sacral ulcers.

4. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

5. A client has an elevated AST 24 hours following chest pain and shortness of breath. This is suggestive of which of the following?

• A. Gallbladder disease
• B. Liver disease
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Skeletal muscle injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated AST level following chest pain and shortness of breath is suggestive of myocardial infarction. AST is released from damaged heart muscle cells during a heart attack, indicating cardiac involvement. This enzyme is not specific to liver disease, gallbladder disease, or skeletal muscle injury in this clinical context.

Similar Questions