Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the healthcare professional's intervention?

• A. The cuff wraps around the girth of the leg.
• B. The UAP auscultates the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg.
• C. The client is placed in a prone position.
• D. The systolic reading is 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse is the site for auscultation when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. Auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg is incorrect as it may lead to an inaccurate reading. Placing the client in a prone position and wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg are acceptable practices. A systolic reading that is 20 mm Hg higher in the lower extremity compared to the arm is expected due to the difference in blood pressure between the upper and lower parts of the body.

2. When measuring vital signs, the healthcare provider observes that a client is using accessory neck muscles during respirations. What follow-up action should the healthcare provider take first?

• A. Determine pulse pressure
• B. Auscultate heart sounds
• C. Measure oxygen saturation
• D. Check for neck vein distention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing a client using accessory neck muscles during respiration indicates respiratory distress. The priority action should be to measure oxygen saturation to assess the adequacy of oxygenation. This intervention provides crucial information about the client's respiratory status and helps guide further assessment and interventions.

3. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
• B. How active is your current sex life?
• C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
• D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Option A is the best response as it directly addresses the client's concern about the reduction in sexual drive caused by the medication. It encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings about how this side effect may impact their current sexual activity, facilitating open communication and understanding between the nurse and the client. Choices B, C, and D are not as appropriate as they do not directly address the client's immediate concern regarding the impact of the medication on their sexual drive.

4. The nurse explains to an older adult male the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Which action is most important for the nurse to include in their care plan for the shift?

• A. Assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure
• B. Check the urine for color and texture
• C. Empty the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container
• D. Discard the contents of the urinal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To ensure accurate creatinine clearance results, it is crucial to collect all urine within the 24-hour period. The process should begin with discarding the first specimen and then collecting all subsequent urine in the designated 24-hour collection container. This ensures that the sample is complete and accurate for the creatinine clearance calculation.

5. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.

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