Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the healthcare professional's intervention?

• A. The cuff wraps around the girth of the leg.
• B. The UAP auscultates the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg.
• C. The client is placed in a prone position.
• D. The systolic reading is 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse is the site for auscultation when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. Auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg is incorrect as it may lead to an inaccurate reading. Placing the client in a prone position and wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg are acceptable practices. A systolic reading that is 20 mm Hg higher in the lower extremity compared to the arm is expected due to the difference in blood pressure between the upper and lower parts of the body.

2. When bathing an uncircumcised boy older than 3 years, which action should the nurse take?

• A. Remind the child to clean his genital area.
• B. Defer perineal care due to the child's age.
• C. Retract the foreskin gently to cleanse the penis.
• D. Inquire about the reason for the child not being circumcised.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action when bathing an uncircumcised boy older than 3 years is to gently retract the foreskin to cleanse the penis. This is important to ensure proper hygiene and prevent the accumulation of bacteria that can lead to infections. It is not advisable to defer perineal care because of the child's age, as hygiene is crucial at any age. Asking the parents about the circumcision status may not be relevant during routine perineal care. Reminding the child to clean his genital area is not as effective as directly cleaning the area during bathing.

3. The charge nurse observes that a demographic screen has been left open on a hallway computer by a nurse who is responding to a call light while the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is involved in a personal phone call. Which action should the charge nurse take first?

• A. Page the unit manager to address the situation.
• B. Close the demographic screen on the computer.
• C. Instruct the UAP to end the phone call immediately.
• D. Send a UAP into the client's room to relieve the nurse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The charge nurse's first action should be to close the demographic screen on the computer to protect patient confidentiality and prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information. This immediate response addresses the breach of patient privacy and ensures that patient data is secure, setting the right priority in managing the situation.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Platelet count.
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. These are the primary laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not directly related to the effects of this medication. Epoetin alfa stimulates the production of red blood cells, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps assess the response to the treatment.

5. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

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