Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving bethanechol chloride (Urecholine). The nurse monitors the client for adverse effects of the medication and should observe for which of the following?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Constipation
• C. Hypertension
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) stimulates muscarinic receptors, which can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial when administering this medication. Constipation, hypertension, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the effects of bethanechol chloride. Bradycardia is the correct adverse effect to monitor for, making option A the correct answer. Constipation, hypertension, and dry mouth are not commonly seen with bethanechol chloride and are therefore incorrect choices.

2. A clinic nurse prepares to administer an MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine to a child. How is this vaccine best administered?

• A. Intramuscularly in the deltoid muscle
• B. Subcutaneously in the gluteal muscle
• C. Subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm
• D. Intramuscularly in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The MMR vaccine is best administered subcutaneously in the outer aspect of the upper arm. This route allows for proper absorption and efficacy of the vaccine while minimizing the risk of injury or discomfort to the child.

3. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a client with deep vein thrombosis?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in patients with deep vein thrombosis. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is crucial in assessing the therapeutic range of heparin. Platelet count, prothrombin time (PT), and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important parameters in assessing coagulation and blood status but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. Before administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, what is the most important laboratory test result for the nurse to check?

• A. Potassium level
• B. Creatinine level
• C. Cholesterol level
• D. Blood urea nitrogen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the potassium level before administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, so it is crucial to assess the potassium level to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.

5. A client who has been taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis asks the nurse about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should limit my alcohol intake.
• B. I should notify my doctor if I notice a yellowish skin color.
• C. I should take the medication with an empty stomach.
• D. I should notify my doctor if I experience numbness and tingling in my extremities.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Isoniazid (INH) is best absorbed when taken on an empty stomach. However, if gastrointestinal upset occurs, it can be taken with food. Limiting alcohol intake, monitoring for jaundice, and notifying the doctor of peripheral neuropathy symptoms are all appropriate actions while taking INH.

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