Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe anemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Pale skin
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical sign in severe anemia as it indicates inadequate oxygenation, which can be life-threatening. Immediate intervention is necessary to address this condition. Pale skin (choice A) is a common finding in anemia but not as urgent as shortness of breath. Increased heart rate (choice B) is a compensatory mechanism in anemia to maintain oxygen delivery and is important but not as urgent as addressing inadequate oxygenation. Fatigue (choice D) is a common symptom in anemia but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation like shortness of breath does.

2. A male client with HIV on saquinavir and other antiretrovirals reports increased hunger and thirst but weight loss. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Use a glucometer to assess capillary glucose.
• B. Explain to the client that an increased dose of medication is needed.
• C. Reassure the client that weight will improve as viral load decreases.
• D. Teach the client how to measure his weight accurately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased thirst and hunger while losing weight may indicate hyperglycemia, a common side effect of saquinavir and other antiretrovirals. Using a glucometer to assess capillary glucose levels is essential to evaluate for hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of medication without assessing blood glucose levels can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect because weight loss may not necessarily improve with viral load reduction and doesn't address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Choice D is irrelevant to the presenting symptoms and should not be a priority over assessing for hyperglycemia.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving supplemental oxygen. The client reports feeling short of breath and has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Administer a bronchodilator
• D. Elevate the head of the bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation, making it the priority intervention for a client with shortness of breath. This position helps in maximizing lung expansion and aiding ventilation-perfusion matching in patients with COPD. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be necessary but should come after optimizing the client's positioning. Notifying the healthcare provider and administering a bronchodilator are not the initial interventions for addressing shortness of breath in a client with COPD.

4. A client with hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. What teaching should the nurse provide about this medication?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid high-potassium foods.
• B. Monitor the client’s heart rate and report any bradycardia.
• C. Advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position.
• D. Instruct the client to avoid sudden position changes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position. Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia and hypotension, so clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness and falls. Monitoring the client's heart rate and blood pressure regularly is essential. Instructing the client to avoid high-potassium foods (Choice A) is not directly related to beta-blockers. While monitoring the client's heart rate (Choice B) is important, advising the client to rise slowly (Choice C) is more directly related to potential side effects of beta-blockers. Instructing the client to avoid sudden position changes (Choice D) is not as specific or essential as advising them to rise slowly to prevent adverse effects.

5. After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Before starting the urine collection, the nurse noted that the client's serum creatinine was 0.3 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Check the client's urine output hourly
• B. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the results
• D. Start the 24-hour urine collection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL is abnormally low, indicating potential issues with the interpretation of the creatinine clearance test. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider of this result before proceeding with the 24-hour urine collection. Checking urine output, instructing the client to increase fluid intake, or starting the urine collection without consulting the healthcare provider could lead to incorrect test results and misinterpretation of the client's renal function.

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