Nursing Elites

1. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a client with deep vein thrombosis?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in patients with deep vein thrombosis. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is crucial in assessing the therapeutic range of heparin. Platelet count, prothrombin time (PT), and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important parameters in assessing coagulation and blood status but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) is prescribed for a client with pain. Which of the following would the nurse monitor for as a side effect of this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) is an opioid analgesic that can cause various side effects. Common side effects include respiratory depression, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, drowsiness, constipation, and urinary retention. Diarrhea is not a common side effect of Meperidine hydrochloride. Bradycardia and hypertension are not typically associated with this medication. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for urinary retention as a potential side effect of Meperidine hydrochloride.

3. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Increased thirst
• B. Fine hand tremors
• C. Frequent urination
• D. Persistent vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Persistent vomiting can be a sign of lithium toxicity, which requires immediate medical attention. Increased thirst, fine hand tremors, and frequent urination are common side effects of lithium.

4. Why is prostaglandin E1 prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries?

• A. Prevents hypercyanotic (blue or tet) spells
• B. Maintains an adequate hormone level
• C. Maintains the position of the great arteries
• D. Provides adequate oxygen saturation and maintains cardiac output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 is prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries to increase blood mixing, which helps maintain adequate oxygen saturation and cardiac output. This medication does not prevent hypercyanotic spells, maintain hormone levels, or influence the position of the great arteries.

5. Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse monitors for which side effects of the medication? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Signs of hepatitis
• B. Flu-like syndrome
• C. Low neutrophil count
• D. Vitamin B6 deficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rifabutin is known to cause side effects such as hepatitis, flu-like syndrome, low neutrophil count, and ocular pain or blurred vision. Vitamin B6 deficiency is not associated with rifabutin but is a side effect of isoniazid (INH). Therefore, the nurse should not monitor for Vitamin B6 deficiency when administering rifabutin.

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