Nursing Elites

1. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin.
• B. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
• C. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.

2. The client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Relief of heartburn
• C. Reduction of steatorrhea
• D. Absence of abdominal pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pancrelipase (Pancrease MT) is a pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy used to aid digestion in clients with pancreatic insufficiency. One of the key goals of pancrelipase therapy is to reduce the amount of undigested fat in the stool, known as steatorrhea. Therefore, the nurse should evaluate the effectiveness of pancrelipase by looking for a reduction in steatorrhea, indicating improved digestion and absorption of fats.

3. A client has been prescribed cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which food item should the client avoid based on the medication's interaction?

• A. Red meats
• B. Orange juice
• C. Grapefruit juice
• D. Green, leafy vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Grapefruit juice should be avoided when taking cyclosporine because it inhibits the metabolism of the medication, leading to increased blood levels and a higher risk of toxicity. It is important for the client to follow this dietary instruction to ensure the safe and effective use of cyclosporine.

4. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which medication should be prepared to administer as prescribed to the client?

• A. Calcium chloride
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
• D. Large doses of vitamin D

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal serum calcium level ranges from 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. In hypercalcemia, as seen in this client, Calcitonin (Miacalcin) is used to decrease plasma calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are typically used for hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Large doses of vitamin D should be avoided in hypercalcemia as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia by increasing calcium absorption from the intestines.

5. A client has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix), and the nurse is monitoring for adverse effects associated with this medication. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a potential adverse effect? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Nausea
• B. Tinnitus
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to adverse effects such as tinnitus, hypotension, and hypokalemia. While nausea is a common side effect of many medications, it is not typically associated with furosemide. Therefore, the nurse should recognize nausea as a potential adverse effect that doesn't apply to furosemide.

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