HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI
1. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin.
- B. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
- C. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.
2. A client with hyperlipidemia is prescribed simvastatin (Zocor). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication in the evening.
- B. Report any muscle pain to your healthcare provider.
- C. Avoid increasing your intake of grapefruit juice.
- D. Do not take the medication with a high-fat meal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscle pain can be a sign of a serious side effect of simvastatin (Zocor) known as rhabdomyolysis and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. The medication is usually taken in the evening to coincide with the body's natural production of cholesterol. Grapefruit juice should be avoided as it can increase the risk of toxicity by affecting the metabolism of the medication. Additionally, taking simvastatin with a high-fat meal can reduce its effectiveness, so it should be taken without food or with a light meal.
3. A client is prescribed calcium gluconate after thyroidectomy. The medication is most likely prescribed to:
- A. Treat thyroid storm.
- B. Prevent cardiac irritability.
- C. Treat hypocalcemic tetany.
- D. Stimulate the release of parathyroid hormone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a thyroidectomy, the parathyroid glands can be inadvertently removed or damaged, leading to a decrease in calcium levels and potentially causing hypocalcemic tetany. Calcium gluconate is given to supplement calcium levels and prevent or treat hypocalcemia-related symptoms, such as muscle spasms and tetany.
4. When administering hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) to a client, the nurse should be aware of which of the following concerns?
- A. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia
- B. Increased risk of osteoporosis
- C. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy
- D. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, which can lead to hypokalemia and hyperglycemia. It is also associated with hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia. Being a sulfa-based medication, individuals with a sulfa allergy are at risk for an allergic reaction when taking hydrochlorothiazide. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide can cause hyperkalemia rather than hypouricemia. Choice B is incorrect as there is no direct link between hydrochlorothiazide and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because hypoglycemia and penicillin allergy are not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use.
5. An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?
- A. Tremors
- B. Dizziness
- C. Confusion
- D. Hallucinations
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Older clients are particularly vulnerable to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent side effect is confusion. It is crucial for nurses to be vigilant in monitoring for confusion as it can impact the client's safety and well-being. While tremors, dizziness, and hallucinations are possible side effects, confusion is the most common in older clients taking cimetidine.
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