the home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus the client is prescribed repaglinide prandin
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pharmacology HESI

1. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.

2. A client is being educated about the use of sertraline (Zoloft) for depression. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement 'I should take the medication with a high-protein meal' indicates a need for further teaching as sertraline (Zoloft) should not be taken with a high-protein meal due to potential interference with medication absorption. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements associated with the use of sertraline for depression. It is common to experience dizziness when quickly getting up, notice a decrease in sex drive, and important to report any thoughts of self-harm to the healthcare provider while on this medication.

3. Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6-year-old child with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which of the following food items?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Iron absorption is enhanced by the presence of vitamin C. Orange juice is a good source of vitamin C, which can improve the absorption of iron when taken together. Therefore, administering iron supplements with orange juice is the best choice to optimize iron absorption for the child.

4. A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A healthcare provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The therapeutic serum level for digoxin ranges from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. This range is considered optimal for therapeutic effects while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Levels above 2 ng/mL may lead to digoxin toxicity, which can manifest as anorexia among other symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in monitoring the digoxin levels to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of the medication.

5. A client with portosystemic encephalopathy is receiving oral lactulose (Chronulac) daily. The nurse assesses which of the following to determine medication effectiveness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In portosystemic encephalopathy, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is impaired, leading to elevated blood ammonia levels, which can cause neurological symptoms such as encephalopathy. Lactulose is given to reduce ammonia levels by promoting its excretion through the bowel. Therefore, assessing the blood ammonia level is crucial to determine the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in managing portosystemic encephalopathy.

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