Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• C. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Take the medication with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water first thing in the morning. It should be taken at least 30 minutes before any food, beverage, or other medication. The client should also remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to prevent esophageal irritation. Taking alendronate at bedtime or with food is not recommended as it may reduce its absorption and effectiveness.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed prednisone for an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Increase the dose of insulin while taking prednisone.
• B. Take the prednisone with food.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels closely.
• D. Do not discontinue prednisone abruptly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels closely. Prednisone can elevate blood glucose levels, necessitating close monitoring. Adjusting the insulin dose may be necessary, but this should be managed by a healthcare provider. Prednisone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal discomfort and should not be stopped suddenly to prevent adverse effects.

3. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

4. Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is prescribed for a client with urinary retention. Which disorder would be a contraindication to the administration of this medication?

• A. Gastric atony
• B. Urinary strictures
• C. Neurogenic atony
• D. Gastroesophageal reflux

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) should not be administered to clients with urinary strictures as it can contract the bladder and increase pressure within the urinary tract. In individuals with urinary strictures, this elevated pressure may lead to bladder rupture. Therefore, caution is advised when considering the use of Bethanechol chloride in clients with urinary strictures to prevent potential complications. Gastric atony, neurogenic atony, and gastroesophageal reflux are not contraindications for the administration of Bethanechol chloride for urinary retention.

5. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for a client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Notifying the registered nurse
• B. Discontinuing the medication
• C. Informing the client that this is normal
• D. Applying a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to inform the client that local discomfort and burning are normal reactions to Mafenide acetate. This medication is used to treat burns by reducing bacteria in avascular tissues. Discontinuing the medication or applying a thinner film than prescribed is not necessary or recommended in this situation.

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