Nursing Elites

1. The client with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is receiving bleomycin intravenously. The nurse caring for the client anticipates that which diagnostic study will be prescribed?

• A. Echocardiography
• B. Electrocardiography
• C. Cervical radiography
• D. Pulmonary function studies

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bleomycin, when administered intravenously, can lead to interstitial pneumonitis and potentially progress to pulmonary fibrosis. Therefore, pulmonary function studies are essential to monitor lung function and detect any early signs of pulmonary toxicity. Other tests, such as regular pulmonary assessments, should also be conducted to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Use the medication as a rescue inhaler.
• B. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication with a full glass of water.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tiotropium (Spiriva) is not a rescue inhaler but a maintenance medication for COPD. The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan is to advise the client to rinse their mouth after using the inhaler. This practice helps prevent dry mouth and throat irritation, common side effects of tiotropium. There are no specific recommendations to take tiotropium on an empty stomach or with a full glass of water.

3. The healthcare provider is analyzing the laboratory results of a client with leukemia who has received a regimen of chemotherapy. Which laboratory value would the healthcare provider specifically note as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurred from the chemotherapy?

• A. Anemia
• B. Decreased platelets
• C. Increased uric acid level
• D. Decreased leukocyte count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following chemotherapy for leukemias and lymphomas, hyperuricemia is common due to the massive cell kill. Chemotherapy leads to the rapid destruction of cancer cells, releasing large amounts of nucleic acids, which are broken down into uric acid. Monitoring and managing uric acid levels are crucial to prevent complications such as renal damage and gout.

4. A nurse preparing a client for surgery reviews the client's medication record. The client is to be nothing per mouth (NPO) after midnight. Which of the following medications, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse question?

• A. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
• B. Alendronate (Fosamax)
• C. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause adrenal atrophy, reducing the body's ability to withstand stress. During surgery, the dosage may need to be adjusted due to its impact on the body's stress response. Choices A, B, and C are not typically contraindicated before surgery and do not have the same potential impact on the body's stress response.

5. Glimepiride (Amaryl) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. A healthcare provider reinforces instructions for the client and advises them to avoid which of the following while taking this medication?

• A. Alcohol
• B. Organ meats
• C. Whole-grain cereals
• D. Carbonated beverages

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alcohol should be avoided when taking glimepiride (Amaryl) because it can cause a disulfiram-like reaction and enhance the hypoglycemic effects of the medication. Consuming alcohol with glimepiride can lead to symptoms such as flushing, palpitations, nausea, and vomiting. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals on glimepiride therapy to steer clear of alcohol to prevent adverse reactions and maintain optimal medication efficacy.

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