a 17 year old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea the clients last menstrual period was 3 weeks a
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam

1. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.

2. A 7-year-old with cystic fibrosis (CF) has received instructions about home care. Which statement made by the child's mother indicates that further teaching is needed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A cough at all times is not normal in a child with cystic fibrosis (CF) and indicates the need for further teaching on CF management. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements in managing CF: taking pancreatic enzymes with meals and snacks, using a bronchodilator daily, and maintaining a high-protein and high-calorie dietary intake are all appropriate for a child with CF.

3. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

4. A client is receiving a low dose of dopamine (Intropin) IV for the treatment of hypotension. Which indicator reflects that the medication is having the desired effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased blood pressure is the desired effect of administering dopamine (Intropin) to treat hypotension. Dopamine acts by stimulating adrenergic receptors, leading to vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output. This results in an elevation of blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly reflect the therapeutic action of dopamine in treating hypotension. Increased heart rate may indicate the body compensating for low blood pressure, increased urinary output is more related to kidney function, and increased respiratory rate is often seen in response to respiratory issues, not the action of dopamine on hypotension.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving treatment for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign indicating that the client is responding to the treatment for dehydration. It suggests that the client's kidneys are functioning better, helping to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration, not improvement. Decreased skin turgor (Choice C) and elevated heart rate (Choice D) are also symptoms of dehydration and do not indicate a positive response to treatment.

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