Nursing Elites

1. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
• B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
• C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
• D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia who has been febrile for 24 hours. Which data is most important for the nurse to obtain in determining the client's fluid status?

• A. Daily intake and output
• B. Skin turgor
• C. Daily weight
• D. Vital signs every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Daily weight is the most important data for the nurse to obtain in determining the client's fluid status in this scenario. During febrile episodes, assessing daily weight is crucial as it can indicate fluid retention or loss. While monitoring intake and output is important for assessing fluid balance, daily weight provides a more comprehensive picture of fluid status over time. Skin turgor is more indicative of hydration status than overall fluid status, and vital signs, although essential, do not directly assess fluid status as effectively as daily weight.

3. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L. Based on this finding, the nurse should anticipate implementing which action?

• A. Administer an IV of normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin subcutaneously.
• B. Administer a retention enema of Kayexalate.
• C. Add 40 mEq of KCL (potassium chloride) to the present IV solution.
• D. Administer a lidocaine bolus IV push.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute renal failure with a high serum potassium level, the priority intervention is to lower potassium levels to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a retention enema of Kayexalate is the correct action as it helps lower high potassium levels by exchanging sodium for potassium in the intestines. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Administering normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin or adding more potassium to the IV solution can further increase potassium levels, worsening the condition. Lidocaine is not indicated for treating hyperkalemia.

4. The nurse enters the room of a client with a nasogastric tube who is receiving continuous feeding. The nurse observes that the client is coughing and that the infusion pump is alarming. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Auscultate the client's breath sounds
• B. Turn the client to the side
• C. Stop the feeding infusion
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first in this situation is to stop the feeding infusion. Coughing in a client with a nasogastric tube can indicate aspiration, which can be a serious complication. By stopping the feeding infusion immediately, the nurse can prevent further aspiration and related complications. Auscultating breath sounds or turning the client to the side may be necessary actions but addressing the feeding infusion is the priority. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate issue of potential aspiration is managed.

5. The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?

• A. A 45-year-old with chronic hepatitis B.
• B. A 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus
• C. A 19-year-old diagnosed with rubella
• D. A 25-year-old with herpes lesions of the vulva

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client with lupus erythematosus can be safely transferred to the antepartal unit as this condition does not pose a significant risk to other patients or staff. Choices A, C, and D should not be recommended for transfer to the antepartal unit due to the potential risks they may pose to pregnant women and their unborn babies. Chronic hepatitis B, rubella, and herpes lesions of the vulva can be contagious and harmful in the perinatal setting.

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