a 17 year old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea the clients last menstrual period was 3 weeks a
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam

1. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is being discharged with a prescription for erythropoietin (Epogen). Which statement indicates that the client understands the action of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It helps my body make red blood cells.' Erythropoietin is a medication that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the body. Clients with chronic renal failure often develop anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys. This medication helps address that issue by increasing red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin does not prevent infections, help kidneys excrete excess fluid, or assist with breathing; its primary action is to boost red blood cell production.

3. A client who is 32-weeks pregnant is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s teaching plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Refraining from sexual intercourse helps prevent complications with partial placenta previa.

4. A 9-year-old boy with tetralogy of Fallot is being discharged following a cardiac catheterization. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the parents?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider if there is any drainage at the catheterization site. Drainage at the site can be a sign of infection, which needs prompt evaluation and treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as crucial as identifying and reporting any drainage, which is more directly related to potential complications post-cardiac catheterization.

5. The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older client who has difficulty swallowing and has a history of aspiration pneumonia. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps prevent aspiration in clients with swallowing difficulties by reducing the risk of food or fluids entering the airway. While obtaining a speech therapy consult (Choice A) is important, the immediate priority is to ensure the client's safety by positioning them properly. Checking the client's lung sounds (Choice C) and implementing aspiration precautions (Choice D) are also essential steps but should follow the immediate intervention of elevating the head of the bed to prevent aspiration.

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