HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A college student who is diagnosed with a vaginal infection and vulva irritation describes the vaginal discharge as having a 'cottage cheese' appearance. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the perineum with warm soapy water 3 times per day
- B. Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator
- C. Perform a glucose measurement using a capillary blood sample
- D. Obtain a blood specimen for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instill the first dose of nystatin vaginally per applicator. Nystatin is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, which are characterized by 'cottage cheese' discharge. Cleansing the perineum with warm soapy water may help with hygiene but does not address the underlying infection. Performing a glucose measurement is not relevant to the diagnosis of a vaginal infection. Obtaining a blood specimen for STDs is not the priority in this scenario as the symptoms described are indicative of a yeast infection.
2. What instruction is most important for the nurse to provide a female client who has just been diagnosed with trichomoniasis?
- A. Avoid douching
- B. Treat sexual partner(s) concurrently
- C. Avoid using moist washcloths when bathing
- D. Postpone becoming pregnant until the infection is treated
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction for a female client diagnosed with trichomoniasis is to treat sexual partner(s) concurrently. This is crucial to prevent reinfection and the spread of the infection. Choice A, avoiding douching, is generally recommended for vaginal health but is not the most critical instruction in this case. Choice C, avoiding moist washcloths when bathing, is not directly related to the transmission or treatment of trichomoniasis. Choice D, postponing pregnancy until the infection is treated, is important but treating sexual partners concurrently takes precedence to prevent reinfection.
3. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2°F and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?
- A. Occult blood in the stool
- B. Abdominal distention
- C. Elevated urine specific gravity
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity is a sign of dehydration in children. In the scenario provided, the child is experiencing increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting, indicating fluid loss and potential dehydration. Occult blood in the stool may suggest gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a direct indicator of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not specific to dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with increased bowel motility, not necessarily dehydration.
4. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?
- A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
- B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
- C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
- D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.
5. While teaching a group of adults about health promotion activities, a nurse identifies a behavior that poses the most significant risk factor for the development of skin cancer. Which behavior should the nurse address?
- A. Consuming a high-fat diet
- B. Using tanning beds
- C. Smoking cigarettes
- D. Drinking alcohol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using tanning beds is the most significant risk factor for developing skin cancer. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation from tanning beds damages the skin and increases the risk of skin cancer. Consuming a high-fat diet, smoking cigarettes, and drinking alcohol are unhealthy behaviors but are not directly linked to the development of skin cancer like UV exposure from tanning beds.
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