Nursing Elites

1. A college student who is diagnosed with a vaginal infection and vulva irritation describes the vaginal discharge as having a 'cottage cheese' appearance. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the perineum with warm soapy water 3 times per day
• B. Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator
• C. Perform a glucose measurement using a capillary blood sample
• D. Obtain a blood specimen for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instill the first dose of nystatin vaginally per applicator. Nystatin is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, which are characterized by 'cottage cheese' discharge. Cleansing the perineum with warm soapy water may help with hygiene but does not address the underlying infection. Performing a glucose measurement is not relevant to the diagnosis of a vaginal infection. Obtaining a blood specimen for STDs is not the priority in this scenario as the symptoms described are indicative of a yeast infection.

2. A client who is HIV positive and taking lamivudine (Epivir) calls the clinic to report a cough and fever. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Advise the client to come to the clinic for an evaluation
• B. Advise the client to increase fluid intake
• C. Advise the client to take an over-the-counter cough suppressant
• D. Advise the client to rest and call if the fever persists

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in this situation is to advise the client to come to the clinic for an evaluation. Given the client's HIV-positive status and medication, it is crucial to assess the cough and fever promptly to identify the underlying cause. Increasing fluid intake (choice B) may be beneficial but does not address the need for evaluation. Taking an over-the-counter cough suppressant (choice C) may not be appropriate without knowing the cause of the symptoms. Advising the client to rest and call if the fever persists (choice D) delays the necessary evaluation and treatment.

3. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. It dissolves blood clots
• B. It prevents the blood from clotting
• C. It thins the blood
• D. It decreases the risk of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

4. The client is being taught how to take alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis treatment. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication at bedtime
• B. I will need to take this medication for at least 3 years
• C. I should sit up for 30 minutes after taking the medication
• D. I should take this medication with a full glass of water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking Fosamax at bedtime is incorrect. It should be taken in the morning with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice B is correct; alendronate is typically taken for several years to treat osteoporosis. Choice C is correct as remaining upright for 30 minutes after taking Fosamax helps prevent esophageal irritation. Choice D is also correct as taking alendronate with a full glass of water is necessary to ensure proper absorption.

5. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes Novolin 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin (Zithromax) PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of the Zithromax an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the Zithromax
• B. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the Zithromax two hours after eating
• C. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the Zithromax the next day
• D. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the Zithromax right after breakfast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the effectiveness of the antibiotic and manage blood glucose levels, the client should take the Zithromax two hours after eating. Option A is incorrect because obtaining a new breakfast tray is not necessary to administer the missed dose. Option C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to decreased effectiveness of the antibiotic. Option D is incorrect because providing an antacid is not indicated in this situation.

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