Nursing Elites

1. A client is being prepared for surgery and has been placed on NPO status. Which of the following is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Assess the client's understanding of the procedure
• B. Monitor the client's compliance with NPO status
• C. Check the client's vital signs
• D. Ensure the client's consent form is signed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monitoring the client's compliance with NPO status is the priority assessment. Ensuring the client remains NPO (nothing by mouth) is crucial to reduce the risk of aspiration during surgery. Assessing the client's understanding of the procedure is important but not the priority at this moment. Checking vital signs is also essential but ensuring NPO status takes precedence for patient safety. Ensuring the client's consent form is signed is necessary but not the priority assessment compared to maintaining NPO status.

2. The nurse is caring for a 24-month-old toddler who has sensory sensitivity, difficulty engaging in social interactions, and has not yet spoken two-word phrases. Which assessment should the nurse administer?

• A. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test
• B. The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT)
• C. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence
• D. Denver Developmental Screening Test

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT) is specifically designed to screen for autism spectrum disorders in young children. It is appropriate for this child, given the signs of social and communication delays. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (Choice A) assesses receptive vocabulary and may not capture the social and communication aspects seen in autism. The Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (Choice C) measures cognitive ability and may not address the social and communication delays. The Denver Developmental Screening Test (Choice D) is a broad developmental assessment tool, but the M-CHAT is more specific to screening for autism in this case.

3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT).
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is the lab value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in clients with DVT. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is prolonged by heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR) are primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is important but does not directly assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

4. A client who is bedridden after a stroke is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which nursing intervention is most important in preventing this complication?

• A. Apply lotion to the skin every 4 hours.
• B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
• D. Massage the skin at least twice a day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers in bedridden clients. This intervention helps in relieving pressure on specific areas of the body, promoting circulation, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying lotion every 4 hours (Choice A) may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) is beneficial for some conditions but not specifically targeted at preventing pressure ulcers. Massaging the skin at least twice a day (Choice D) can actually increase the risk of skin breakdown in individuals at risk for pressure ulcers by causing friction and shearing forces on the skin.

5. A client receiving full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding develops diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the feeding and provide IV fluids.
• B. Dilute the feeding to half strength and continue at the same rate.
• C. Reduce the feeding rate and monitor for improvement.
• D. Add fiber to the client's diet to resolve diarrhea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops diarrhea from continuous enteral tube feeding, diluting the feeding to half strength and continuing at the same rate is the appropriate intervention. This helps reduce the strength of the feeding, minimizing gastrointestinal upset while still providing necessary nutrition. Stopping the feeding abruptly (Choice A) may lead to nutritional deficits. Simply reducing the feeding rate (Choice C) may not effectively address the issue of diarrhea. Adding fiber (Choice D) could potentially worsen the diarrhea in this scenario instead of resolving it.

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