HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
- B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
- C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
- D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.
2. The father of a 4-year-old has been battling metastatic lung cancer for the past 2 years. After discussing the remaining options with his healthcare provider, the client requests that all treatment stop and that no heroic measures be taken to save his life. When the client is transferred to the palliative care unit, which action is most important for the nurse working on the palliative care unit to take in facilitating continuity of care?
- A. Ensure the client's family is aware of the client's wishes
- B. Begin comfort measures immediately
- C. Obtain a detailed report from the nurse transferring the client
- D. Confirm that the client understands the treatment plan
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining a detailed report from the previous nurse ensures continuity of care and that all relevant information is passed on. This is critical in palliative care, where comfort measures and symptom management are key components of care. Choice A is not the most important action in this scenario, as the question focuses on continuity of care within the healthcare team. Beginning comfort measures immediately, as in choice B, is essential but obtaining a detailed report takes precedence to ensure a smooth transition of care. Confirming that the client understands the treatment plan, as in choice D, is important but does not directly address the need for continuity of care through a detailed report.
3. After working with a very demanding client, an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the nurse, 'I have had it with that client. I just can't do anything that pleases him. I'm not going in there again.' The nurse should respond by saying
- A. He has a lot of problems. You need to have patience with him.
- B. I will talk with him and try to figure out what to do.
- C. He is scared and taking it out on you. Let's talk to figure out what to do.
- D. Ignore him and get the rest of your work done. Someone else can take care of him for the rest of the day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the UAP's feelings while exploring the client's behavior. By stating, 'He is scared and taking it out on you. Let's talk to figure out what to do,' the nurse shows empathy and readiness to address the situation collaboratively. This approach helps maintain a therapeutic environment for both the UAP and the client. Choices A and D are dismissive and do not address the underlying issue or provide support. Choice B, while showing willingness to intervene, lacks the understanding of the client's potential fear and does not address the UAP's feelings.
4. A nurse finds a pregnant client at 33 weeks gestation in cardiac arrest. What modification to cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer chest compressions at a faster rate.
- B. Position a firm wedge under the client’s pelvis and thorax at a 30-degree tilt.
- C. Position the client flat with legs elevated.
- D. Call for immediate assistance and prepare for a cesarean section.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a pregnant client at 33 weeks gestation, performing CPR requires tilting the pelvis and thorax at a 30-degree angle to relieve pressure on the vena cava, ensuring proper circulation during compressions. Administering chest compressions at a faster rate (Choice A) may not address the specific needs of a pregnant client in cardiac arrest. Positioning the client flat with legs elevated (Choice C) is not recommended as it can worsen vena cava compression. Calling for immediate assistance and preparing for a cesarean section (Choice D) should be considered only after initiating appropriate CPR modifications.
5. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?
- A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
- B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
- C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
- D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important point to reinforce after a vasectomy is to continue using contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm in the ejaculate. Choice A is correct because it emphasizes the necessity of another form of contraception until sperm absence is confirmed. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on how a vasectomy works anatomically rather than the need for ongoing contraception. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses post-vasectomy care but does not address the need for continued contraception. Choice D is also incorrect as it refers to general post-procedure recommendations but does not highlight the crucial aspect of using contraception until sperm absence is confirmed.
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