HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
- B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
- C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
- D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.
2. An older client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy is preparing for discharge. What finding requires immediate provider notification?
- A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
- B. No bowel movement since surgery.
- C. No appetite for breakfast.
- D. A positive Chvostek's sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, a complication after parathyroid surgery that requires immediate attention. This sign is manifested by facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve in front of the ear is tapped, indicating neuromuscular irritability due to low calcium levels. Afebrile with a normal pulse (Choice A) is a normal finding and does not require immediate notification. No bowel movement since surgery (Choice B) is common postoperatively due to anesthesia effects and pain medications and usually resolves within a few days; it does not require immediate notification unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. No appetite for breakfast (Choice C) is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate notification unless it persists and leads to dehydration or malnutrition.
3. A male client with HIV receiving saquinavir PO in combination with other antiretrovirals reports constant hunger and thirst but is losing weight. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Use a glucometer to check glucose level.
- B. Teach client to measure weight accurately.
- C. Explain that medication dose may need to be increased.
- D. Reassure client weight will increase as viral load decreases.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to use a glucometer to check the client's glucose level. Saquinavir, an HIV medication, can lead to hyperglycemia, which may cause symptoms like constant hunger and thirst while losing weight. Checking the glucose level will help assess for hyperglycemia. Choice B is not the priority in this situation as the client's weight loss is a concerning symptom that needs immediate attention. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the medication dose without assessing the glucose level first could exacerbate hyperglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the symptoms of constant hunger, thirst, and weight loss, which may indicate a more urgent issue like hyperglycemia.
4. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?
- A. 3 ml.
- B. 0.4 ml.
- C. 1.2 ml.
- D. 0.9 ml.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.
5. A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?
- A. Inspect the PICC insertion site for signs of infection.
- B. Observe the antecubital fossa for inflammation.
- C. Auscultate lung sounds for signs of respiratory distress.
- D. Check for signs of phlebitis or thrombosis along the catheter site.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Observing the antecubital fossa for inflammation is crucial in clients with a PICC line and fever. Inflammation at the site can indicate infection or complications related to the PICC line. Auscultating lung sounds (choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Checking for phlebitis or thrombosis (choice D) is relevant but does not address the immediate concern of identifying infection or complications at the insertion site. Inspecting the PICC insertion site (choice A) is also important but observing the antecubital fossa provides a more direct assessment of potential issues with the PICC line.
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