when preparing to administer a domestic violence screening tool to a female client which statement should the rn provide
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. When preparing to administer a domestic violence screening tool to a female client, which statement should the RN provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because screening all clients for domestic abuse helps normalize the process and reduces the stigma, encouraging honest responses. Choice A is not the best option as it may come off as accusatory and can deter the client from being open. Choice B, mentioning state law, may create fear or pressure, affecting the client's response. Choice C focuses on the healthcare provider's needs rather than emphasizing the client's well-being, which may not facilitate open communication.

2. A client who has agoraphobia (a fear of crowds) is starting desensitization therapy with the therapist, and the nurse is reinforcing the process. Which intervention has the highest priority for this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Establishing trust by providing a calm and safe environment is crucial for the success of desensitization therapy in clients with agoraphobia. This approach helps the client feel safe and secure, allowing them to gradually confront their fear of crowds. Encouraging positive thoughts (choice A) is beneficial but not as immediately critical as creating a safe space. Progressively exposing the client to larger crowds (choice C) should occur after trust is established and in a controlled manner. Encouraging deep breathing (choice D) is helpful, but creating a safe environment takes precedence to build a foundation for successful desensitization.

3. While sitting in the day room of the mental health unit, a male adolescent avoids eye contact, looks at the floor, and talks softly when interacting verbally with the RN. The two trade places, and the RN demonstrates the client's behaviors. What is the main goal of this therapeutic technique?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main goal of the therapeutic technique described is to allow the client to identify the way he interacts. This technique helps promote self-awareness in the client by mirroring his behavior back to him, which can lead to insights about his own communication style. Option A is incorrect as the goal is not just to initiate conversation but to facilitate self-reflection. Option B is incorrect because the focus is not on discussing the ineffectiveness of the interactions but on self-awareness. Option D is incorrect as the primary aim is not to discuss the client's feelings but to help him recognize his interaction patterns.

4. A client with schizophrenia is exhibiting visual and auditory hallucinations. What should be the RN’s initial intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with schizophrenia exhibiting visual and auditory hallucinations is to assess the client’s perception of the hallucinations. This step is crucial as it helps the RN determine the severity of the hallucinations and the best course of action for management and intervention. Instructing the client to ignore the hallucinations (Choice A) may not be effective as the hallucinations may be distressing and overwhelming. Encouraging the client to describe the hallucinations in detail (Choice B) may potentially worsen the symptoms or trigger further distress. Providing reassurance that the hallucinations are not real (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the client may genuinely believe in their reality, and this reassurance may not address the underlying issues causing the hallucinations.

5. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

Similar Questions

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James is a 42-year-old patient with schizophrenia. He approaches you as you arrive for day shift and anxiously reports, 'Last night, demons came to my room and tried to rape me.' Which response would be most therapeutic?
A young adult male is hospitalized due to depression and an attempted suicide. The client reports that he lost his job and was angry with his employer for firing him when he took an overdose of pain medications. Which behavior best indicates to the nurse that his condition is improving?
An adolescent client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviors. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention?
A client who has agoraphobia (a fear of crowds) is beginning desensitization with the therapist, and the RN is reinforcing the process. Which intervention has the highest priority for this client’s plan of care?

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