HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. When preparing to administer a domestic violence screening tool to a female client, which statement should the RN provide?
- A. If domestic abuse is happening, I need to ask these questions.
- B. State law requires that all clients are screened for domestic violence.
- C. It is essential for us to know if you are experiencing any domestic abuse.
- D. All clients are screened for domestic abuse because it is common in our society.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because screening all clients for domestic abuse helps normalize the process and reduces the stigma, encouraging honest responses. Choice A is not the best option as it may come off as accusatory and can deter the client from being open. Choice B, mentioning state law, may create fear or pressure, affecting the client's response. Choice C focuses on the healthcare provider's needs rather than emphasizing the client's well-being, which may not facilitate open communication.
2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is receiving a new prescription for fluoxetine (Prozac). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this medication?
- A. “I should begin feeling less anxious within a few weeks.â€
- B. “The drug will help me control my compulsive behaviors.â€
- C. “I will need to have a weekly blood test to check my liver function.â€
- D. “I should avoid foods that contain tyramine while taking this medication.â€
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluoxetine, an SSRI, can help manage symptoms of OCD by assisting in controlling compulsive behaviors rather than directly reducing anxiety. The improvement in symptoms usually occurs over a few weeks. Choice A is incorrect as it provides a timeframe for anxiety improvement, which is not the primary goal of fluoxetine in OCD treatment. Choice C is incorrect as routine blood tests are not typically required with fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-containing foods is more relevant for MAOIs, not SSRIs like fluoxetine.
3. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
- B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
- C. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.
- D. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing a dystonic reaction due to dopamine depletion, which is a known side effect of Risperidone. Dystonia presents as abnormal muscle contractions and postures. The immediate management for this side effect is the administration of an anticholinergic medication like Benztropine (Cogentin). Choice A is incorrect as thioridazine is not the recommended medication for dystonic reactions. Choice B is incorrect as a hot pack would not effectively address the underlying cause of the dystonic reaction. Choice D is incorrect as occupational therapy is not the appropriate intervention for managing acute dystonia.
4. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April’s mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:
- A. Time-out is an important part of April's baseline discipline.
- B. Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.
- C. April enjoys time-out and acts out to get some alone time.
- D. Time-out will need to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.' In this scenario, the excessive use of time-out, up to 20 times a day, indicates that it is no longer effective in helping April self-reflect and control her behavior. Constant use of time-out without achieving the desired outcome suggests the need for alternative therapeutic interventions. Choice A is incorrect because the situation described indicates that time-out is not serving its intended purpose. Choice C is also incorrect as the behavior is not driven by a desire for alone time. Choice D is incorrect and inappropriate as seclusion and restraint should only be considered as a last resort and are not indicated based on the information provided.
5. A male client with bipolar disorder who began taking lithium carbonate five days ago is complaining of excessive thirst, and the nurse finds him attempting to drink water from the bathroom sink faucet. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Report the client’s serum lithium level to the healthcare provider.
- B. Encourage the client to suck on hard candy to relieve the symptoms.
- C. No action is needed since polydipsia is a common side effect.
- D. Tell the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to suck on hard candy is the appropriate intervention as it can help alleviate the sensation of excessive thirst, which is a common side effect of lithium. Reporting the client’s serum lithium level to the healthcare provider may be needed if there are signs of lithium toxicity, but the priority here is to address the immediate symptom of excessive thirst. Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, is a known side effect of lithium, but it should not be left unaddressed. Simply telling the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed does not address the underlying issue of excessive thirst and may lead to further distress.
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