Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result would the nurse expect to find in this client?

• A. pH level of 7.45
• B. Serum calcium of 15 mg/dL
• C. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL
• D. Sodium level of 120 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with diabetic ketoacidosis typically present with elevated blood glucose levels, often above 300 mg/dL. This high blood glucose level, along with other symptoms, helps confirm the diagnosis of DKA. A pH level of 7.45 would be indicative of alkalosis, not the acidosis seen in DKA. A serum calcium level of 15 mg/dL is significantly elevated and is not a typical finding in DKA. A sodium level of 120 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is not a characteristic laboratory finding in DKA.

2. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Improved blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Reduced preload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

3. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?

• A. Diminished bowel sounds
• B. Loss of appetite
• C. A cold, pale lower leg
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is cause for the most concern as it could indicate compromised blood circulation, potentially leading to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea are not directly related to the client's condition in atrial fibrillation and the heart rate discrepancy.

4. A client with multiple sclerosis is experiencing fatigue. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to increase physical activity.
• B. Encourage the client to take rest breaks during activities.
• C. Administer a stimulant medication to reduce fatigue.
• D. Advise the client to use energy conservation techniques.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Advise the client to use energy conservation techniques. Energy conservation techniques are crucial in managing fatigue in multiple sclerosis. These techniques involve prioritizing activities, pacing oneself, and taking rest breaks to prevent overexertion, which can exacerbate fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase physical activity (choice A) may worsen fatigue if not done with proper energy conservation. Taking rest breaks during activities (choice B) is important but falls secondary to teaching energy conservation techniques. Administering a stimulant medication to reduce fatigue (choice C) should not be the priority as non-pharmacological interventions like energy conservation should be attempted first.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

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