Nursing Elites

1. A young adult was hit in the temporal area with a baseball bat and is being monitored for signs of a closed head injury. Which finding indicates a developing epidural hematoma?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury.
• C. Severe headache and blurred vision.
• D. Loss of motor function on the affected side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after a temporal injury is a classic sign of epidural hematoma, which is a neurosurgical emergency. This finding occurs due to the rapid expansion of the hematoma, causing compression of the brain. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are more commonly associated with other types of head injuries, such as concussion. Severe headache and blurred vision (choice C) are symptoms seen in various head injuries but are not specific to epidural hematomas. Loss of motor function on the affected side (choice D) is more indicative of a different type of head injury, such as a contusion or intracerebral hematoma.

2. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• B. Administer an intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section.
• D. Place the client in a lateral position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for frequent hyperglycemic episodes and a glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) of 10%. Insulin glargine 10 units subcutaneously once a day at bedtime and a sliding scale of insulin aspart every 6 hours are prescribed. What actions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Teach subcutaneous injection technique, site rotation, and insulin management
• B. Coordinate carbohydrate-controlled meals at consistent times and intervals
• C. Review with the client proper foot care and prevention of injury
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Effective diabetes management involves comprehensive care, including proper foot care, insulin administration technique, and maintaining carbohydrate consistency with meals. All of these interventions are critical in reducing hyperglycemic episodes and managing diabetes.

4. An older adult client with eye dryness reports itching and excessive tearing. Which medication group is most likely to have produced this client's symptoms?

• A. Antiinfectives and antidepressants.
• B. Anticoagulants and antihistamines.
• C. Antiretrovirals and antivirals.
• D. Antihypertensives and anticholinergics.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Antihypertensives and anticholinergics. Anticholinergics are known to cause dryness of secretions, including dry eyes, which can lead to symptoms of eye dryness, itching, and excessive tearing as reported by the client. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not typically cause the symptoms described by the client. Antiinfectives, antidepressants, anticoagulants, antihistamines, antiretrovirals, and antivirals do not commonly lead to dry eyes, itching, and excessive tearing.

5. A client admitted to the ICU with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. What is the first intervention the nurse should implement?

• A. Evaluate the client's swallowing ability.
• B. Reorient the client frequently.
• C. Patch one eye to minimize confusion.
• D. Perform range of motion exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the client's swallowing ability. Osmotic demyelination can cause dysphagia, putting the client at risk for aspiration. Assessing swallowing function is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. Reorienting the client frequently (Choice B) is more suitable for confusion related to conditions like delirium. Patching one eye (Choice C) is a technique used for diplopia or double vision, not specifically indicated for osmotic demyelination. Performing range of motion exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial for preventing complications of immobility but is not the priority intervention for osmotic demyelination.

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