a young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right above knee amputation aka and reports aching in his right foot which intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right above-knee amputation (AKA) and reports aching in his right foot. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a prescription for gabapentin. Gabapentin is used to treat phantom limb pain, which is common after amputations. Encouraging discussion about feelings of limb loss (choice A) is important for emotional support but does not address the physical pain. Teaching the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage (choice C) is not indicated for aching in the 'right foot' as described. Offering assistance to move to a quiet room to relax (choice D) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.

3. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery. What is the nurse's priority action when preparing this client for surgery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood glucose levels. Clients with diabetes are at risk for perioperative complications related to blood glucose fluctuations. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to maintaining proper management before, during, and after surgery. Option A is not the priority action as ensuring NPO status is a standard preoperative procedure for all clients. Option C could be important but is secondary to monitoring blood glucose levels. Option D is important but not the priority during the preoperative phase.

5. A child has a nosebleed (epistaxis) while playing soccer. In what position should the nurse place the child?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to position the child sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing down the throat, reducing the risk of choking or vomiting. Choice A is incorrect because lying flat can cause blood to flow down the throat. Choice C is wrong as tilting the head back may lead to blood entering the throat. Choice D is also incorrect as applying ice is not recommended for nosebleeds and lying on the side may not prevent blood from flowing down the throat.

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