a young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right above knee amputation aka and reports aching in his right foot which intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right above-knee amputation (AKA) and reports aching in his right foot. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a prescription for gabapentin. Gabapentin is used to treat phantom limb pain, which is common after amputations. Encouraging discussion about feelings of limb loss (choice A) is important for emotional support but does not address the physical pain. Teaching the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage (choice C) is not indicated for aching in the 'right foot' as described. Offering assistance to move to a quiet room to relax (choice D) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain.

2. Which of these findings would the nurse more closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pale mucous membranes, such as those of the eyelids and lips, are a classic sign of anemia in infants. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, resulting in tissue hypoxia, which can manifest as pale mucosa. Choice A, a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL, is within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant and would not necessarily indicate anemia. Choice C, hypoactivity, is a non-specific finding and can be present in various conditions, not specifically anemia. Choice D, a heart rate between 140 to 160, is within the normal range for an infant and is not a specific finding associated with anemia.

3. The nurse has given discharge instructions to parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, so good oral hygiene is important to prevent complications.

4. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.

5. The nurse is responsible for several elderly clients, including a client on bed rest with a skin tear and hematoma from a fall 2 days ago. What is the best care assignment for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best care assignment for the client with a skin tear and hematoma is to supervise a nursing assistant for skin care. This ensures proper wound care while utilizing the skills of the nursing assistant effectively. Assigning an RN to supervise the nursing assistant is appropriate as it provides the necessary expertise for wound care supervision. Delegating complete care to an unlicensed assistive personnel may not be suitable for a client with specific wound care needs. Helping the client with self-care activities may not directly address the urgent need for proper wound care in this situation.

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