HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right above-knee amputation (AKA) and reports aching in his right foot. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage discussion about feelings of limb loss.
- B. Administer a prescription for gabapentin.
- C. Teach the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage.
- D. Offer assistance to move to a quiet room to relax.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a prescription for gabapentin. Gabapentin is used to treat phantom limb pain, which is common after amputations. Encouraging discussion about feelings of limb loss (choice A) is important for emotional support but does not address the physical pain. Teaching the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage (choice C) is not indicated for aching in the 'right foot' as described. Offering assistance to move to a quiet room to relax (choice D) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain.
2. The nurse receives a report on an older adult client with middle stage dementia. What information suggests the nurse should do immediate follow-up rather than delegate care to the nursing assistant?
- A. Has had a change in respiratory rate with an increase of 2 breaths
- B. Has had a change in heart rate with an increase of 10 beats
- C. Was minimally responsive to voice and touch
- D. Has had a blood pressure change with a drop of 8 mmHg systolic
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A change in responsiveness, as indicated by being minimally responsive to voice and touch, suggests a potential acute issue that requires immediate nursing assessment and intervention rather than delegation. Changes in vital signs (choices A, B, D) can be important but do not always indicate an immediate need for nursing intervention compared to a change in responsiveness.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
- A. Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute.
- B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
- C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute.
- D. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia of 50 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a critical assessment finding in a client prescribed with digoxin, as it can indicate digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia is a known side effect of digoxin, and if left unaddressed, it can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Both choices B, heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and C, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, fall within normal ranges and do not raise immediate concerns. Choice D, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, is also within normal limits and does not indicate digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should report bradycardia promptly to prevent further complications.
4. A young adult was hit in the temporal area with a baseball bat and is being monitored for signs of a closed head injury. Which finding indicates a developing epidural hematoma?
- A. Nausea and vomiting.
- B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury.
- C. Severe headache and blurred vision.
- D. Loss of motor function on the affected side.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after a temporal injury is a classic sign of epidural hematoma, which is a neurosurgical emergency. This finding occurs due to the rapid expansion of the hematoma, causing compression of the brain. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are more commonly associated with other types of head injuries, such as concussion. Severe headache and blurred vision (choice C) are symptoms seen in various head injuries but are not specific to epidural hematomas. Loss of motor function on the affected side (choice D) is more indicative of a different type of head injury, such as a contusion or intracerebral hematoma.
5. A male client reports that he took tadalafil 10 mg two hours ago and now feels flushed. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake.
- B. Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect.
- C. Advise the client to take nitroglycerin as a precaution.
- D. Ask the client to come to the emergency room.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect. Tadalafil, a medication used for erectile dysfunction, can cause flushing as a common side effect. In this situation, the nurse should provide reassurance to the client that the flushing is expected and not necessarily a cause for concern. Increasing oral fluid intake (choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not directly related to tadalafil-induced flushing. Advising the client to take nitroglycerin (choice C) is incorrect, as nitroglycerin is not indicated for flushing. Asking the client to come to the emergency room (choice D) is unnecessary at this point since flushing is a known side effect and does not typically require urgent medical attention.
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