HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right above-knee amputation (AKA) and reports aching in his right foot. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage discussion about feelings of limb loss.
- B. Administer a prescription for gabapentin.
- C. Teach the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage.
- D. Offer assistance to move to a quiet room to relax.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a prescription for gabapentin. Gabapentin is used to treat phantom limb pain, which is common after amputations. Encouraging discussion about feelings of limb loss (choice A) is important for emotional support but does not address the physical pain. Teaching the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage (choice C) is not indicated for aching in the 'right foot' as described. Offering assistance to move to a quiet room to relax (choice D) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain.
2. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?
- A. Decreased heart rate
- B. Improved blood pressure
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Reduced preload
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.
3. A client tells the nurse about working out with a personal trainer and swimming three times a week in an effort to lose weight and sleep better. The client states that it still takes hours to fall asleep at night. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Advise the client to reduce exercise intensity
- B. Ask the client for a description of the exercise schedule that is being followed
- C. Encourage the client to try relaxation techniques before bed
- D. Suggest avoiding water-based exercise before bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Asking the client for a description of the exercise schedule being followed is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this scenario. Understanding the timing and intensity of the client's exercise routine can help identify if the activity is contributing to sleep disturbances. Exercise too close to bedtime can cause difficulty falling asleep. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the need to assess the exercise schedule and may not provide the necessary information to identify the potential cause of the client's sleep issue.
4. A young woman with multiple sclerosis just received several immunizations in preparation for moving into a college dormitory. Two days later, she reports to the nurse that she is experiencing increasing fatigue and visual problems. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Immunizations can trigger a relapse of the disease, so get plenty of extra rest
- B. Visual problems are unrelated to the recent immunizations
- C. Increase fluid intake to reduce symptoms of fatigue
- D. Consult the healthcare provider immediately for steroid therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Immunizations can sometimes trigger relapses in multiple sclerosis due to the activation of the immune system. Extra rest can help manage these symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because visual problems can be associated with the immune response triggered by immunizations in individuals with multiple sclerosis. While increasing fluid intake is generally good advice, in this case, the nurse should focus on explaining the possible connection between the immunizations and the symptoms experienced. Choice D is not the immediate course of action; educating the patient on the potential link between immunizations and symptom exacerbation is more appropriate at this stage.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing hyperglycemia. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate long-term glucose control?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C)
- C. Urine output
- D. Serum ketone level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C). Glycosylated hemoglobin reflects long-term glucose control over the past three months. Monitoring blood glucose levels provides information on the current glucose status and immediate control, but it does not give a comprehensive view of long-term control. Urine output and serum ketone levels are important indicators for other aspects of diabetes management, such as hydration status and ketone production during hyperglycemic episodes, but they do not directly reflect long-term glucose control.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access