a young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right above knee amputation aka and reports aching in his right foot which intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right above-knee amputation (AKA) and reports aching in his right foot. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a prescription for gabapentin. Gabapentin is used to treat phantom limb pain, which is common after amputations. Encouraging discussion about feelings of limb loss (choice A) is important for emotional support but does not address the physical pain. Teaching the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage (choice C) is not indicated for aching in the 'right foot' as described. Offering assistance to move to a quiet room to relax (choice D) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit.' When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin, the nurse's priority action is to monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring these lab values helps evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin in treating anemia. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (choice B) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client for signs of infection (choice C) is important but not the priority related to the prescription of erythropoietin. Monitoring the client for signs of bleeding (choice D) is relevant but not the priority action when erythropoietin is prescribed.

3. What safety measure should the nurse take for a client with a seizure disorder who has an IV line?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ensure the client is positioned on the opposite side of the IV line. Placing the IV line on the opposite side of any seizure activity is essential to prevent injury. It helps to ensure that the IV line is not dislodged during a seizure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. While padding and protecting the IV site is important, the priority is to position the client on the side opposite to the IV line to prevent dislodgement and injury during a seizure.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the emergency room with abdominal pain, polyuria, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first start an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention is crucial in addressing severe dehydration associated with diabetic ketoacidosis, a life-threatening complication of type 1 diabetes. Administering intravenous insulin (Choice A) is important but should follow fluid resuscitation. Obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice C) is necessary but not as urgent as addressing the dehydration. Administering an antiemetic (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation.

5. Prolonged exposure to high concentrations of supplemental oxygen over several days can cause which pathophysiological effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prolonged exposure to high oxygen concentrations can disrupt the production of surfactant in the lungs, leading to atelectasis and other lung complications. Surfactant is essential for maintaining lung compliance and preventing alveolar collapse. Reduced cardiac output (Choice A) is not directly associated with prolonged oxygen exposure. Hyperactivity of alveoli (Choice C) is not a recognized consequence of high oxygen levels. Increased oxygen carrying capacity (Choice D) is not a pathophysiological effect of prolonged high oxygen exposure.

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