HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume excess. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake.
- B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
- C. Measure the client's intake and output.
- D. Restrict dietary sodium intake.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Restricting dietary sodium intake (D) is the most critical intervention for a client with fluid volume excess to prevent further fluid retention. Encouraging increased fluid intake (A) would exacerbate the issue by adding more fluid to the body. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (B) is more relevant for respiratory issues than fluid volume excess. While measuring intake and output (C) is important for assessing fluid balance, restricting sodium intake is the priority as it helps manage fluid levels more effectively by reducing fluid retention.
2. An older client who had abdominal surgery 3 days earlier was given a barbiturate for sleep and is now requesting to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assist the client to walk to the bathroom and do not leave the client alone.
- B. Request that the UAP assist the client onto a bedpan.
- C. Ask if the client needs to have a bowel movement or void.
- D. Assess the client's bladder to determine if the client needs to urinate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Barbiturates cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, increasing the risk of falls. It is crucial for the nurse to assist the client to the bathroom to prevent potential injuries. Leaving the client alone may lead to accidents due to the effects of the medication. Monitoring and supporting the client during this activity is essential for ensuring safety and preventing falls.
3. The client is being taught how to perform active range of motion (ROM) exercises. To exercise the hinge joints, which action should the client be instructed to perform?
- A. Tilt the pelvis forwards and backwards
- B. Bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus
- C. Turn the head to the right and left
- D. Extend the arm at the side and rotate it in circles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hinge joints, like the elbow, primarily allow movement in one direction, in this case, bending the arm. The correct action to exercise hinge joints is to bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus. This movement specifically targets the hinge joint and promotes its range of motion. Choices A, C, and D involve movements that do not specifically target hinge joints. Tilt the pelvis involves the ball-and-socket joints of the hip, turning the head involves the pivot joint of the neck, and extending the arm and rotating it in circles involve multiple joints including ball-and-socket and pivot joints.
4. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Increase dietary intake of calcium-rich foods.
- B. Avoid activities that increase the risk of falls.
- C. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
- D. Increase intake of vitamin D supplements.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Avoiding activities that increase the risk of falls (B) is the most crucial instruction for a client with osteoporosis to prevent fractures. Osteoporosis weakens bones, making them more susceptible to fractures from falls. While increasing calcium intake (A) is important for bone health, avoiding falls takes precedence to prevent immediate harm. Avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight (C) is not directly related to osteoporosis management. Increasing vitamin D supplements (D) is beneficial for bone health, but fall prevention is more critical in this scenario.
5. During the digital removal of a fecal impaction, the nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?
- A. Temperature increases from 98.8° to 99.0° F.
- B. Pulse rate decreases from 78 to 52 beats/min.
- C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 24 breaths/min.
- D. Blood pressure increases from 110/84 to 118/88 mmHg.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During digital removal of a fecal impaction, a vagal response can occur due to stimulation of the anal sphincter. If the client experiences bradycardia (pulse rate decreases), the nurse should stop the procedure immediately and take corrective action to prevent any complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate a vagal response, which is the expected adverse reaction during this procedure.
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