an older adult who recently began self administration of insulin calls the nurse daily to review the steps that should be taken when giving an injecti an older adult who recently began self administration of insulin calls the nurse daily to review the steps that should be taken when giving an injecti
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Quizlet

1. An older adult who recently began self-administration of insulin calls the nurse daily to review the steps that should be taken when giving an injection. The nurse has assessed the client's skills during two previous office visits and knows that the client is capable of giving the daily injection. Which response by the nurse is likely to be most helpful in encouraging the client to assume total responsibility for the daily injections?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because focusing on the client's demonstrated ability to self-administer the injection is likely to reinforce his level of competence without sounding punitive. By acknowledging the client's correct performance during the self-injection, the nurse can boost the client's confidence, encouraging him to assume total responsibility for the daily injections. Choices A, B, and D do not directly highlight the client's competence in self-administration, which may not be as effective in promoting independent self-care.

2. A healthcare provider is educating a client with DM on recognizing symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which symptom should the healthcare provider mention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct symptom to mention when educating a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) on hypoglycemia is sweating. Sweating is a common symptom of hypoglycemia as it occurs due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system in response to low blood sugar levels. Increased thirst (Choice A) and frequent urination (Choice B) are more indicative of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) rather than hypoglycemia. Weight loss (Choice D) is not a typical symptom associated with hypoglycemia.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes atenolol 50 mg daily for a client with angina pectoris. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular pulse. An irregular pulse may indicate an arrhythmia, which could be exacerbated by atenolol, a beta-blocker used to treat angina pectoris. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so if the patient already has an irregular pulse, it could worsen with the medication. Tachycardia (choice B) would actually be an expected finding in a patient with angina pectoris, and atenolol is used to help reduce the heart rate in such cases. Chest pain (choice C) is a symptom that atenolol is meant to alleviate, so it would not be a reason to withhold the medication. Urinary frequency (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of atenolol for angina pectoris and would not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

4. A client tells the nurse, 'I have something very important to tell you if you promise not to tell.' The best response by the nurse is

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse cannot promise confidentiality in this context. It is essential to prioritize the safety and well-being of the client and others. Certain information, such as harm to oneself or others, must be reported to ensure appropriate interventions are taken. Choice A is incorrect because while documentation is important, confidentiality cannot be guaranteed in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should not make promises that may conflict with their professional responsibilities. Choice D is incorrect as reporting everything to the treatment team without discretion may breach client confidentiality.

5. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a radical nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma. The nurse notes that the client’s blood pressure has decreased from 134/90 to 100/56 mm Hg and urine output is 20 mL for this past hour. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should first fully assess the client for signs of volume depletion and shock, and then notify the provider. The radical nature of the surgery and the proximity of the surgery to the adrenal gland put the client at risk for hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is a clinical manifestation associated with both hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is particularly dangerous for the remaining kidney, which must receive adequate perfusion to function effectively. Re-positioning the client, measuring specific gravity, and administering pain medication would not provide data necessary to make an appropriate clinical decision, nor are they appropriate interventions at this time.

Similar Questions

The healthcare professional is preparing to give a dose of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and learns that the patient takes warfarin (Coumadin). The healthcare professional will request an order for
A male client with schizophrenia is admitted to the mental health unit after abruptly stopping his prescription for ziprasidone (Geodon) one month ago. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client?
After checking the fingerstick glucose at 1630, what action should be implemented?
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume deficit. Which clinical finding would the nurse expect?
The nurse is planning a health education program for 10-year-olds. Which setting is most likely to increase the preadolescents' participation in the program?

Access More Features

HESI Basic

HESI Basic